Respiratory System Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

Respiratory system pharma mcqs fcps part 1

Respiratory System Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

1. Why the dose of theophylline in infant is smaller than in adults

a. Decrease metabolism

b. Decrease plasma protein binding

c. Smaller size of infant liver

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

2. ln metastatic pleural effusion which drug to be given:

a. Streptomycin

b. Clindamycin

c. Corticosteroids

d. Bleomycin

.

Ans. D

.

3. Ipratopium bromide is given by nebulization for

a. Dec Acetylcholine release in bronchi

b. Vasodilation

c. Increase secretion

d. Venodilation

.

Ans. C

.

4. Which of the following is drug of choice for patient of status asthmaticus:

a. I/V aminophylin

b. Oral steroid

c. salbutamol

.

Ans. C

.

5. Most common side effect of theophylline is

a. Hypertension

b. Seizures

c. Nausea vomiting

d. Apnea

.

Ans. C

.

6. In metastatic pleural effusion which Druq should be given:

a. Streptomycin

b. Clindamycin

c. Corticosteroids

d. Bleomycin

.

Ans. D

.

7. Isoniazid:

a. Cannot be administered with rifampicin

b. Is contraindicated in nephropathy

c. Pyridoxine is used prophylactically to prevent its neurotoxic effects

.

Ans. C

.

8. Which anti TB drug is bacteriostatic

a. INH

b. Rifampicin

c. Streptomycin

d. Pyrazinamide

.

Ans. D

.

  • BACTERIOSTATIC DRUGS: A bacteriostatic drug stops bacteria from reproducing, but does not actually kill bacteria.

  • BACTERIOCIDAL DRUGS: These drugs kill bacteria

  • PYRAZINAMIDE: Pyrazinamide acidify the intracellular environment of bacteria via conversion to pyrazinimic acid; thus acting as a bacteriostatic drug.

    .

    9. lsoniazid induced peripheral neuropathy is prevented by

    a. Vit B1

    b. Vit B6

    c. Vit B12

    d. Niacin

.

Ans. B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) decreases isoniazid toxicity.

.

10. Patient is taking anti tuberculous drugs. Cause of color blindness is

a. Rifampicine

b. Ethambutol

c. Pyrazinamide

d. INH

e. Streptomycin

.

Ans. B

.

11. A highway truck driver has profuse rhinorrhea and sneezing. Which among the following durqs should be given to

him.

a. Pheniramine

b. Promethazine

c. Dimerhydrinate

d. Cetirizine

.

Ans. D

.

12. A diabetic female on INH and rifampicin for TB suffers DVT.She is started on warfarin. PT is not raised. Next step

should be:

a. Long term heparin therapy

b. Replace warfarin with acecoumarin

c. Switch ethambutol for rifampin

d. Use LMW heparin

.

Ans. C

.

13. Mechanism of action of Theophylline in Bronchial Asthma include all of the following Except

a. Phosphodiesterase inhibition

b. Adenosine Receptor antagonism

c. Increased Histone Deacteylation

d. Beta-2 Receptor stimulation

.

Ans. D

.

14. Mechanism of action of Theophylline in Bronchial Asthma is:

a. Phosphodiesterase Inhibition

b. Mast cell stabilization

c. Leukotriene Antagonism

d. Beta2 agonism

.

Ans. A

.

15. Patien on ATT presents with do qout.Drug that shoule be stopped is

a. Isoniazid

b. Ethambutol

c. Pyrazinamide

d. Streptomycine

e. Rifampicin

.

Ans. C

.

16. Patient on ATT. develops joint pain and have increase uric acid level. Which drug causes it.

a. Pyrazinamide

b. Rifampacin

c. Ethambutol

d. Isoniazid

.

Ans. A

.

17. Patient is on ATT. Now develops visual field abnormally and eye changes. Which drug is responsible

a. Ethambutol

b. Isoniazid

c. Rifampacin

d. pyrazinamide

.

Ans. A

.

18. A child is on /32 agonist for the treatment of asthma. He may have all of the following side effects except:

a. Tremor

b. Tachycardia

c. Hyperkalemia

d. Hypokalemia

.

Ans. D

.

19. low estrogen containing oral contraceptive is associated with

A. Breast carcinoma

B. endometrial carcinoma

C. Liver adenoma

D. Ovarian carcinoma

E. Venous thrombosis

.

Ans. C

.

20. the H1 receptor antagonist produces all the following effects except

A. Decreased gastric acid secretion

B. Drowsiness

C. Dry mouth

D. Relief in allergic conditions

E. Relief in bronchial asthma

.

Ans. A

.

.

21. Salbutamol.

A. Stimuiategunainecyclase activity in bronchial smooth muscle.

B. Mainly stimulates f3-2 adrenoceptors.

C. Cannot be administered by inhalation.

D. May nct be used to prevent premature labor.

E. Produces tachycardia as one of the main side effects.

.

Ans E/B ???

.

22. Ephedrine.

A. Acts centrally as a nasal decongestant.

B. May not produce insomnia.

C. Is a drug of addiction.

D. Is not toxic in therapeutic doses.

E. Stimulates the CNS.

.

Ans. A

.

23. Following drugs can be used as nasal decongestant, Vasopressor and local mydriatic

A. Phenylephrine.

B. Mymbutol.

C. Clonidine.

D. Oxymetasoline.

E. Noradrenaline.

.

Ans. A

.

24. Why the dose of theophylline in infant is smaller than In adults

A. Dec metabolism

B. Dec plasma protein binding

C. Increased metabolism

.

Ans. A

.

.

.

Reproductive System Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

Reproductive system pharma mcqs fcps part 1

Reproductive System Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

1. Most dangerous Side effect of estrogen therapy is

a. Suppression of lactation

b. Hirsutism

c. Thrombophlebitis

d. Osteoporosis

.

Ans. C

.

2. Tamoxifen has effect on which system

a. CVS

b. CNS

c. Breast

d. Liver

e. Kidney

.

Ans. C

.

3. Post menopausal women presents with breast carcinoma.Drug of choice is

a. Tamoxifen

b. Estrogen

c. Progesterone

d. Bisphosphonates

.

Ans. A

.

4. Which one of the Following is teratogenic

a. Alcohol

b. Coffee

c. Heroin

d. Phenothiazine

e. Tobacco

.

Ans. A

.

5. A lady in 3rd trimester presents with hypertension and edema . she has history of seizures . The treatment of choice will be

a. MGSO4

b. Methyldopa

c. Clonidine

d. Alpha blocker

.

Ans. A

.

6. A 20 year old girl has developed Galactorrhea due to prolactinoma and has qivenBromocriptine .is given. The drug causes

a. Inhibition of prolaction from pituitary gland

b. Decreased prolaction from hypothalamus

c. Inhibition of prolaction from breast

d. Stimulation of prolaction of anterior pituitary

.

Ans. A

.

7. Bromocriptine causes decreased prolactin levels by acting on

a. Dopamine receptors

b. Cholinergic receptors

c. Alpha receptors

d. Beta receptors

.

Ans. A

.

8. Most common side effect of estrogen contraceptive is

a. Thromboembolism

b. Obesity

c. Ovarian cancer

d. IHD

.

Ans. A

.

9. Which hormone decreases cholesterol

a. Progesterone

b. Estrogen

c. Testosterone

d. Prolactin

.

Ans. B. The important effects of estrogen to remember are:

.

  • ↓Serum cholesterol level + ↑Fats deposition
  • Inhibits osteoporosis (by inhibiting bone resorption) → Decreased serum calcium level → Increased parathyroid hormone secretion

    .

    10. True about Sevoflurane

    a. Is carboxylated ether

    b. Causes cough when given during induction

    c. Has sweet smell

.

Ans. B

.

11. Which of following drug is not used in pregnancy induced hypertension

a. Aspirin

b. Diuretics

c. Beta blockers

d. Methyldopa

.

Ans. B

.

12. Best medical treatment for first trimester missed abortion

a. Syntocinon

b. Misoprostol

c. Magnesium sulphate

d. Salbutamol

.

Ans. B

.

13. Reversal of MGSO4 is

a. Calcium gluconate

b. Bicarbonate

c. Proteins

d. Phosphate

.

Ans. A

.

14. a woman of reproductive age on certain medication developed venous thrombosis in the lower limbs. The most likely Medication is

A. Anti hypertensives

B. Antidiabetics

C. Aspirin

D. Contraceptives

E. Thyroxine

.

Ans. D

.

15. the most important complication of tamoxifen therapy for Breast cancer is

A development of carcinoma in other breast

B endometrial adenomatous hyperplasia

C. Female children of the patient become vulnerable to cancer

D. Hirsutism

E. Infertility

.

Ans. B

.

16. long term use of oestrogen increases the risk of

A. Breast cancer

B. Carcinoma cervix

C. Deep vein thrombosis

D gall stone formation

E. Myocardial infarction

.

Ans. A. Long term use of estrogen only HRT or estrogen plus progesterone HRT increases the risk for breast cancer.

.

SURGERY

17. following are the pharmacological causes of gynaecomastia except

A. Androgens

B cimeticline

C. Digoxin

D. Griseofulvin

E. Oestrogens

.

Ans. A

.

18. pharmacological causes of gynaecomastia include all of the Following except;

A. Androgens

B. Cimetidine

C. Digoxin

D. Griseofulvin

E. Oestrogens

.

Ans. A

.

19. the main action by which estrogen-progestin combination oral Contraceptives prevent pregnancy is;

A. Alteration of oviduct motility

B. Change in cervical mucosal consistency

C. Change in endometrial structure

D. Inhibition of ovulation

E. Spermicidal effects

.

Ans. D

.

20. the mechanism of action of l.etreozole used as second line Hormonal therapy in the treatment of breast cancer is

A. Arrest cell division at g1 phase

B. Blocks oestrogen receptors

C blocks progesterone receptors

D. Direct cytolytic action

E. Selectively inhibits aromatase

.

Ans. E

.

21. a post menopausal women suffering from breast cancer is to 73e Managed by drug therapy. In this patient you would prescribe;

A. Cis platinum

B. Mitomycin-c

C. Chlorambucil

D tarnoxifen

E. Vincristine

.

Ans. D

.

22. Which of the following is main side effect of low estrogen containing contraceptive pills?

A. Thromboembolisrn

B. Carcinoma of endornetrium

C. Breast carcinoma

D. Ovarian carcinoma

.

Ans. A

.

23. Estrogen excess use in women has increase risk of

A. Cervical carcinorna

B. Endometriosis

C. Breast cancer

D. Ovarian cancer

.

Ans. C

.

24. Use of estrogen containing contraceptive pills increase the risk of

A) breast cancer

B) osteornaiacia

C) osteoporosis

D) thromboembolism

E) vaginal cancer

.

Ans. D

.

MEDICINE

25. Treatment for high altitude sickness:

A. Acetazolamide

B. Amphetamine

C. Aspirin

D. Caffeine

.

Ans. A

.

GYNAE

26. Most dangerous Side effect of estrogen therapy is

A. suppression of lactation

B. hirsutism

C. thrombophlebitis

D. osteoporosis

.

Ans. C

.

27. Oxytocin Is given to a pt in labour.lt has effect on:

A. oxytocin receptors on cervix

B. oxytocin receptor on myometrium and endometrium

C. dec prostaglandin recp on cervIx

D. dec prostaglandin recp on myometriun

.

Ans. B

.

ANESTHESIA

28. Post menopausal women with breast ca. Drug Of Choice is

a. Tamoxifen

b. cispiatin

c. methotrexate.

.

Ans. A

.

29. Common cause of DVT is

A. Quinolones

B. Early ambulation after surgery

C. Macrolides

D. Oral contraceptive pills

.

Ans. D

.

.

.

.

.

Renal Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

REnal pharma fcps part 1 mcqs

Renal Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

1. Drug used for mountain sickness is

a. Acetazolamide

b. Scopolamine

c. Dorzolamide

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

  • Mountain sickness causes cerebral and pulmonary edema which in turn results in

    .

  • Shortness of breath
  • Dizziness
  • Nausea

    .

  • Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. By inhibiting carbonic anhydrase, it inhibits the exchange of Na+ for H+ in PCT of kidneys → Less Na+ is absorbed → As water follows Na+, decreased sodium absoption results in decreased water absorption → Mild diuresis → Decreased fluid load in the body → decreased cerebral and pulmonary edema → Improved symptoms of mountain sickness.

    .

    2. An old man is taking spironolactone. Which among the following side effects is expected in this patient

    a. Hyokalemia

    b. Hypocalcemia

    c. Gynecomastia

    d. Hypercalcemia

.

Ans. C. Spironolactone chemically resembles some of the sex steroids, and may result in:

.

  • Gynaecomastia in males
  • Menstrual irregularities in females

    .

    DRUGS CAUSING GYNAECOMASTIA – DISCKO

    .

  • Digoxin
  • INH (Isoniazid)
  • Spironolactone
  • Cimetidine
  • Ketokonazole
  • Oestrogen

    .

    3. Patient with mild CCF was given some medications. 1 week later patient complains of severe pain at Rt big toe. Cause is

    a. Thiazide

    b. Furosemide

    c. ACE inhibitor

    d. Amiodarone

.

Ans. A. Thiazide causes: hyperGLUC

.

  1. Glucose
  2. Lipids
  3. Uric acid
  4. Calcium

    .

    4. A known hypertensive patient took some diuretic and died in 6 hours. What is the cause

    a. Acute renal failure

    b. Chronic renal failure

    c. Diuretic use

    d. Hypophosphatemia

    e. Hypokalemia

.

Ans. A

.

5. Captopril causes

a. Hypokalemia

b. Hyper kalemia

c. Hypercalcemia

d. Hypocalcemia

.

Ans. B

.

6. Loop diuretics + thiazides enhance each others effect ( Dec NaCI absorption) at:

a. Descending loop of Henle

b. Ascending loop of Henle

c. Proximal convoluted tubule

d. Distal convoluted tubule

e. Collecting duct

.

Ans. D

.

7. Side Effects of ACE inhibitors

a. Hyperkalemia

b. HypoKalernia

c. Hypercalemia

d. Hypocalcemia

.

Ans. A

.

8. Patient with mild CCF was given some treatment . 1 week later patient complains of severe pain in Right big toe.Cause is

a. Thiazide

b. Furosemide

c. ACE inhibitor

d. Amiodarone

.

Ans. A

.

9. Hydrochlorthiazide causes

a. Increase K

b. Increase Ca

c. Increase Mg

d. Increase Na

.

Ans. B. Thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorthiazide) causes – HyperGLUCose

.

  • HyperGlycemia
  • HyperLipidemia
  • HyperUricemia
  • HyperCalcemia

    .

    10. During pregnancy fetus has chance of developing renal aqensis and oliqohydraminos. Which drug is responsible

    a. Captopril

    b. Spirononlactone

    c. Thiazide diuretic

    d. Tetracyclin

.

Ans. A. ACE inhibitors are teratogenic; they result in fetal renal malformations.

.

11. Which is osmotic diuretic

a. Mannitol

b. Acetazolamide

c. Hydrochlorthiazide

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

12. Which is a prodruq.

a. Enalapril

b. Clonidines

c. Salmeterol

d. Acetazolamide

.

Ans. D

.

13. A hypertensive presented in ER in collapsed satate with k 6.o.Most likely cause for this condition is

a. Diuretic intake

b. Acute renal failure

c. Cgronic renal failur

d. Cushing,s disease

.

Ans. B. It is a scenario of chronic renal failure with acute exacerbation (i.e., acute renal failure).

.

14. Regarding loop diuretic which one of the following is correct

a. Decrease interstitium osmolality,so dilute urine is produced

b. Decrease osmolality of tubular fluid

c. Decrease calcium in urine

d. Decrease urea secreted in urine

.

Ans. B

.

15. Which drug causes diuresis & smooth muscle relaxation and given in acute pulmonary edema

a. Furosemide

b. Spironolacton

c. Hydrochlorthiazide

d. Acetazolamide

.

Ans. A. Furosemide causes diuresis as well as smooth muscle relaxation in the walls of blood vessels (via the release of prostaglandins). It is used in acute pulmonary edema as it decreases fluid load of the body.

.

16. An Osmotic Diuresis results from

a. Mannitol

b. Loop diuretic

c. Furosemide

d. Ethacrynic acid

e. Ingestion of Alcohol

.

Ans. A

.

17. an osmotic diuresis may result from

A. Aldosterone

B. Frusamide

C. Hyperinsulinism

D. Ingestion of alcohol

E. Mannitol

.

Ans. E

.

18. loop diuretics

A. Act independent of changes in acid base balance

B. Inhibit carbonic anhydrase

C. Inhibit reabsorption of chloride in distal tubule

D. Produce hypouricemia

E. Produce metabolic acidosis

.

Ans. A

.

19. an important therapeutic or toxic effect of loop diuretics is

A. Decreased blood volume

B. Decreased heart rate

C. Increased serum sodium

D. Increased total body potassium

E. Metabolic acidosis

.

Ans. A

.

20. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors such as acetazolamide acts as a 1.)1!)Rehic agent br.ecausl it –

A. Dechases secrotien with resultmt increase in na+ and K+ excretion

B. Decreases tabular reabsorption and increases gfr

C. Inhibits actions of oldosterorie

D. Inhibits vasopresin secretion

E. Produces osolic diuresis

.

Ans. A

.

21. a 30 year old mountaineer, on rapidly climbing over 3000 meters High mountain peak develops dizziness, headache, nausea and General lethargy. His symptoms can best be relieved by Prescribing

A. Acetazolamide

B. Amphetamine 0,

C. Aspirin

D. Caffeine

E Paracetamol

.

Ans. A

.

22. After climbing to the high attitude, a person complains of headache. .t.ennea, nausea Dizziness. Which of the fallowing drug can relieve these problems?

A. Acetazolamide

B. Ibuprofen

C. Acetaminopher

D. Diazepam

E. Frusemide

.

Ans. A

.

23.- Frusemide acts on

A. PCT

B. DC7′

C. CCT

D. Loop Of Henle

.

Ans. D

.

24. Thy drug used most likely in acute pulmonary which has also some effect on smooth Muscles

A) kande diuretic

B) Spironolactone

C) Loop diuretics

D) Triarntrinc

E) Acetazolamide

.

Ans. C

.

25. A patient takes thiazide diuretic. After taking this drug, he develops epigastric pain radiating to the back. What is the diagnostic investigation best for this patient?

A. Serum amylase

B. X-ray abdomen

C. Ultrasound abdomen

D. Alkaline phosphatase

E. CPK

.

Ans. A

.

26. A young person ascends on a mountain rapidly & develops headache 8 vomiting, which of the following will be drug of choice for this patient.

A. Caffeine

B. Paracetamol

C. Acetazolamide

D. Mannitot

E. Aspirin

.

Ans. C

.

27. Side effects of ace inhibitors

A. Hyperglycemia

B. Hypocalcernia

C. Hyperkalemia

D. Hypernatremla

.

Ans. C

.

28. Which is potassium sparing diuretic

A. Ethacrynic acid

B. Metalazone

C. Indaparnide

D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

E. Triametrene

.

Ans. E

.

29. Chronic use of thiazide diuretic cause

A. Hypokatemia

B. Hyocatcemia

C. Hypouremia

.

Ans. A

.

30. A 55 yr old man with Anterior wall MI and signs of pulmonary edema which single drug is most effective

A. Aspirin

B. Frusemide

C. Steptokinase

.

Ans. B

.

31. Thlazide diuretics causes

A. Hypercatccmia

B. Hypedealemia

C. Hypenirecemia

D. Hypoglycemia

E. Hypolipidemia

.

Ans. A

.

32. Digoxin toxicity is increased by

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Quinidlne

C. Hypermagnesernii

D. Hypoglycemia

.

Ans. B

.

33. Mode of action of captoprll

A. Inhibits angiotension II receptors

B. Decreased conversion of angiotensin I into anijitensin II

C. Antagonizes aldosterone

.

Ans. B

.

GYNAE

34. If a known hypertensive pt took some diuretic n died in 6 hours. What is the cause

A. acute renal failure

B. chronic renal failure

C. diuretic use •

D. hypophosphatemia

E. hypokalemia

.

Ans. E

.

EYE

35. Acetazotamide causes:

A. Hyperkatemia

B. Hypokalemla

C. Hypocalcaemia

D. Hyperuricemia

E. Hyperglycemia

.

Ans. B

.

36. Pt with mild CCF. Treatment started. 1 week lacer pt complains of severe pain at Rt big toe. Most likely Cause is:

a. thiazide diuretics

b. furosemide

c. ACE inhibitors

d. amiodarone

.

Ans. A

.

37. Infant with renal abnormality (renal artery stenosis). Drug responsible:

a. ACE inhibitors

b. Ca channel Mocker

c. amiodarone

d. thiazides

.

Ans. A

.

.

Psychiatry Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

psychiatry pharma mcqs fcps part 1

Psychiatry Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

1. Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by:

a. Anticholinergics.

b. Levodopa.

c. Selegiline

d. Amantadine.

.

Ans. A. Antipsychotic drugs block four type of receptors:

.

(1) MUSCURINIC RECEPTORS: Blockage of muscarinic receptors result in typical atropine-like effects, e.g.,:

.

  • Dry mouth
  • Constipation

    .

    That’s why all antipsychotic drugs are “ANTIEMETIC”.

    .

    (2) α1 RECEPTORS: Blockage of α1 receptors result in:

    .

  • Hypotension

    .

    (3) HISTAMINE RECEPTORS: Blocking histamine receptors result in:

    .

  • Sedation

    .

    (4) DOPAMINE RECEPTORS: Blockage of dopamine receptors result in:

    .

  • Reversible pseudoparkinsonism (bradykinesia, rigidity, tremors)

    .

    The antipsychotic-induced parkinsonism can be treated by giving muscarinic receptor blockers (anticholinergics).

    .

    2. What is effect of TCA antidepressant overdose

    a. Seizures

    b. HTN

    c. Respiratory depression

.

Ans. A. Tricyclic antidepressants causes “Tri C” – Convulsions, Coma, Cardiotoxicity (arrhythmias)

.

3. Enzyme involved in serotonin and epinephrine metabolism is

a. MAO

b. COMT

c. Dopamine hydroxylase

d. None of above

.

Ans. A. MAO (monoamine oxidase) metabolizes:

.

  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin
  • Norepinephrine

    .

    4. Which one of the following is not epileptogenic

    a. Flouxetin

    b. Amitriptyline

    c. Imiprarnine

    d. None of above

.

Ans. A. SSRI’s (fluoxetine) do not cause convulsions, and hence are not epileptogenic. TCA’s (amitryptaline, imipramine) cause convulsions and are epileptogenic.

.

5. Patient is taking MAO inhibitors. Which of the following could cause hypertensive crisis is

a. Coffee

b. Chocolate

c. Cola

d. Pine apple

e. String beans

.

Ans. A. MAO inhibitors cause hypertensive crises, most notably with ingestion of tyramine, which is found in many foods such as coffee, wine, and chesse.

.

6. Which among the following promotes each others actions

a. Atropine and reserpine

b. Amytriptyline and reserpine

c. Atropine and amitryptyline

d. None of above

.

Ans. C

.

7. Adverse effect of chlorpromazine is

a. Extrapyrimidal

b. Chorea

c. Epilepsy

d. All of above

.

Ans. A

.

8. Narrow therapeutic index is seen with:

a. Desipramine

b. Lithium

c. Penicillin

d. Diazepam

.

Ans. B

.

9. Most common congenital anomaly associated with Lithium

a. Cardiac Malformations

b. Neural Tube Defects

c. Renal anomaly

d. Fetal Hydantoin syndrome

.

Ans. A

.

10. MAO inhibitors should not be used with

a. Pethidine

b. Pentazocine

c. Buprenorphine

d. Morphine

.

Ans. A. Pethidine causes severe CNS depression when used with MAO inhibitors.

.

11. Patient is taking MAO inhibitors. Taking in combination of which of the following can cause hypertensive crisis

a. Coffee

b. Chocolate

c. Cola

d. Pine apple

e. String beans

.

Ans. A. While taking MAO inhibitors, hypertensive crises can occur with:

.

  • Sympathomimetic drugs
  • Tyramine-containing foods (coffee, wine, cheese)

    .

    12. Thiazide diuretic increases toxicity of which drug

    a. Lithium

    b. Antipsychotics

    c. Tricyclic antidepressant

    d. Ethacrynic acid

.

Ans. A

.

13- A child is being treated with imipramine, what will be the effect.

A. Hematological reaction

B. Behavioral change

C. Hyponatremia

D. Arousal problem

.

Ans. C

.

14. Toxic effect of chlorpromazine

A) Anxiety

B) Dystonic reaction

C) Mood elevation

D) Hallucination

E) Polyuria

.

Ans. B

.

15. Anxiolytic effect is mediated by which receptor

A. Dopamincrgic

B. GABA

C. Glutamate

D. NE

E. Scrotonin

.

Ans. B

.

16. Schizophrenic patient with dry mouth, constipation, blurring of vision, which drug is responsible in causing all this.

A. Chlorpromazine

B. A.-nitryptine

C. Thioradazine

D. Lithium

E. Carbamezipine

.

Ans. C

.

17. The most toxic effect of Chlorpromazine

A. Anxiety

B. Hallucination

C. Dystonia

D. Polyuria

E. Seizures

.

Ans. C

.

18. Epinephrine & serotonin are metabolized by?

A. Court

B. Mad

C. Methyl hydro.oxylase

.

Ans. B

.

19. Effects of chlorpromazine resulting from dopamine receptor blockade include all of the following except?

A. Menorthea. Galactorrhea syndrome in women

B. Anti-emetic action

C. Anti-psychotic action

D. Parkinson’s syndrome

E. Postural hypotension

.

Ans. E

.

20. Levodopa is given along carbidopa in rx of parkinson’sdisease because?

A. Carbidopa decreases its peripheral activation

B. Facilitates Its entry into brain

C. Potentiates its effects on brain

P. Increases its git absorption

.

Ans. A

.

.

.

Neurology Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

Neurology Pharma mcqs fcps part 1

Neurology Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

 

1. Half life of desmethyl diazepam, an inactive metabolite of diazepam is:

a. 20-50 hrs

b. 50-100 hrs

c. 100-200 hrs

d. 36-200 hrs

.

Ans. D

.

  • Desmethy diazepam is a metabolite of diazepam; diazepam metabolites have variable half lives.
  • Also remember that diazepam is the longest acting benzodiazepine while midazolam is the shortest acting benzodiazepine.

    .

    2. L- Dopa is combined with Carbidopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to:

    a. Decrease the efficacy of levodopa

    b. Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa

    c. Increase the dose of levodopa required

    d. Inhibit conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the CNS

.

Ans. B. Unlike dopamine, which can not cross the blood brain barrier (BBB), L-dopa can cross BBB where it is converted into dopamine by the enzyme “decarboxylase”. Carbidopa is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor, and is given with L-dopa to increase the bioavailability of L-dopa in brain and to limit it’s peripheral side effects.

.

3. Morphine causes

a. Bradycardia & meiosis

b. Bradyapnea & mydriasis

c. Tachyapnea & mydriasis

d. Tachyapnea & meiosis

.

Ans. A

.

4. Diazepam relaxes skeletal muscle by acting on

a. Cerebral cortex

b. NMJ

c. Muscle directly

d. Interneuron

.

Ans. A. Receptors for benzodiazapines are present in many brain regions including:

.

  • Cerebral cortex
  • Thalamus
  • Limbic structures

    .

    5. Which effect of opiods does not develop tolerance

    a. Miosis

    b. Analgesia

    c. Sedation

    d. Euphoria

    e. Decrease threshold to apnea

.

Ans. A. Tolerance develops to all side effects of opoids (morphine) except:

.

  • Miosis
  • Constipation

    .

    6. Drug that is contraindicated in Intracranial HTN

    a. Ketamine

    b. Thiopental

    c. Fentanyl

    d. Midazolam

.

Ans. A. Ketamine increases cerebral blood flow; that’s why it is contraindicated in:

.

  • ↑Intracranial pressure
  • ↑Intraocular pressure

    .

    7. Pharmacodynamics Drug-Drug interaction

    a. Thiazide and lithium

    b. Morphine and Naloxone

    c. Procaine and Adrenaline

    d. Phenobarbital and warfarin

.

Ans. B

.

  • Drug-drug interaction means “a modification of the effect of a drug when administered with another drug”.
  • Morphine is opoid-receptor agonist, while naloxone is opoid–receptor antagonist. So, naloxone decreases the effect of morphine if both drugs are coadministered.

    .

    8. Most toxic local anaesthetic is

    a. Bupivacaine

    b. Ropivacaine

    c. Lidocaine

    d. Dimethocaine

.

Ans. A

.

9. In Huntington’s chorea, succinylcholine is contraindicated. Why

a. Pseducholine esterase is deficient

b. Increased pseudocholine esterase

c. Increased metabolism

.

Ans. A. Huntington disease is occurs due to deficiency of acetylcholine. Succinycholine is a strong acetylcholine receptor agonist; it’s neuromuscular blocking effect is potentiated by cholinesterase inhibitors.

.

10. Regarding General anesthesia influence, which is true

a. Motor is affected 1st

b. Pain neurons blocked 1st

c. Sensory neurons blocked 1st

d. Autonomic neurons blocked 15t

.

Ans. B. General anesthesia block sensations in the following order: Pain > Temperature > Touch > Pressure

.

11. An unconsious man with pin-point pupils not responding to Naloxone, the probable cause is

a. Heroin

b. Hasheesh

c. Morphine

d. Phenobarbitone

.

Ans. D. Both morphine and barbiturates (e.g, phenobarbitone) cause pin-point pupils. But morphine poisoning respond to naloxone while phenobarbital do not (there is no antidote for phenobarbital).

.

12. Flumazenil

a. Onset of action is 30-60 min

b. All unconscious patient must be screened by this drug

c. Paradoxical tachycardia

d. Maximum safe dose is 1 mg/day

.

Ans. A

.

13. True about lsoflurane is

a. MAC 1.9

b. Req special vaporizer

c. Decrease HR

d. None of above

.

Ans. B

.

14. Regarding Enflurane which is true

a. EEG typical of seizures

b. Not concerned to dose / conc administration

c. Increase ICP

d. Cause facial spasm

.

Ans. A. Enflurane is a pro-convulsant (i.e., it causes tonic clonic seizures).

.

15. More pungent is

a. lsoflurane

b. Enflurane

c. Desflurane at MAC <1

d. None of above

.

Ans. C. MAC: MAC value, a mesure of anesthetic potency, is defined as the minimal alveolar concentration (% of inspired air) at which 50% of patients do not respond to surgical stimulus.

.

16. Myocardial toxicity caused by which LJA

a. Bupivacaine

b. Lignocain

c. Prilocain

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

17. Cardiovascular collapse occurs with

a. Bupivacaine

b. Cocain

c. Procain.

Ans. A

.

18. MetHaemoglobinemia is caused by

a. Prilocaine

b. Cocain

c. Procain

.

Ans. A

.

19. After induction of anesthesia by 10 mq/kq thiopentone, patient is hypotonic. Cause is

a. Hypersensitivity

b. Decrease HR

c. Decrease contractility

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

20. Anesthetics differ from anelqesics in:

a. Only alter A delta and C fibers

b. Anesthetics effect at cerebral level and analgesics at spinal cord level

c. Affects only pain and temperature and no other sensory modalities

.

Ans. B (Consciousness is controlled by cerebrum; so anesthetics act on cerebrum).

.

21. An unconscious patient presented in ED does not respond to Naloxone. Which of the following drug has been taken by this patient

a. Morphine

b. Heroine

c. Pethidine

d. Phenobarbital

.

Ans. D

.

22. Ketarnin is used as anesthetic in repeated dressings of burn patient because:

a. It relieves pain as well.

b. High bioavailability

c. Because cause dissociative anaesthesia

.

Ans. A

.

23. Corneal opacities are caused by

a. Ethambutol

b. Phenothiazides

c. Antiepileptics

.

Ans. B

.

24. Which is P450 inducer

a. Isoniazid

b. Phenobarbitone

c. Cemetidine

d. Ketoconazole

.

Ans. B. Phenobarbitone is P450 inducer while cimetidine is P450 inhibitor.

.

25. Morphine can be given in

a. Biliary cirrhosis

b. Terminal ill patient of cancer

c. Acute pancreatitis

d. None of above

.

Ans. B

.

26. Nor-epinephrine & serotonin degradation is done by

a. MAO

b. COMT

c. Pseudocholinesterase

.

Ans. A. MAO degrades:

.

  • Dopamine
  • Norepinephrine
  • 5HT (serotonin)

    .

    27. A pregnant women is on Phenytoin. What is the least likely complication in fetus

    a. Bone deformity

    b. Mental retardation

    c. Cleft palate

    d. Nail Hypoplasia

.

Ans. A. Phenytoin is teratogenic and causes fetal hydantoin syndrome; features of fetal hydantoin syndrome includes:

.

  • Intrauterine growth restriction with a small head
  • Dysmorphic craniofacial features
  • Limb defects including hypoplastic nails and distal phalanges
  • A smaller population will have growth problems and developmental delay, or intellectual disability
  • Methemoglobinemia (rare)
  • Heart defects
  • Cleft lip

    .

    28. P(Mu) opoid receptor is responsible for the following effects except

    a. Miosis

    b. Bradycardia

    c. Hypothermia

    d. Bronchodilation

.

Ans. D. Opoid agonists cause bronchoconstriction; that’s why morphine is contraindicated in asthma (COPD).

.

29. Barbiturates are absolutely contraindicated in which of the following conditions

a. Kernicterus

b. Epilepsy

c. Acute intermittent porphyria

d. Alcoholics

.

Ans. C

.

30. Intramuscular morphine is

a . Independent of blood flow

b. Stable in slow release

c. Pain relief in 3 -4 hr

d. Peak little variable

e. Onset of action 1 hr.

.

Ans. C

.

31. Patient presented with taking deep breaths and resp rate of 6/min. Which drug cause this poisoning

a. Morphine

b. Pethidine

c. Nalbuphine

d. Pheobarbitone

.

Ans. A

.

32. Opoid Toxicity causes

a. Nausea & vomiting

b. Psychosis

c. Pin point pupil

d. Respitory depression

.

Ans. D

.

33. Which of the following is classified as non barbiturate hypnotic

a. Bromide

b. Chloral hydrate

c. Triazolam

d. Chlormethimazole

.

Ans. B

.

34. In which of the following disorders, administration of barbiturates is contraindicated

a. Anxiety disorders

b. Acute intermittent porphyria

c. Kernicterus

d. Refractive status epilepticus

.

Ans. B

.

35. Granulocytopenia. gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of one of the following

anticonvulsant drugs:

a. Phenytoin

b. Valproate

c. Carbamazepine

d. Phenobarbitone

.

Ans. A

.

36. Carbamazepine’s dopamine receptor blocking effects doesn’t include

a. Amenorrhea & galactorrhea in females

b. Antiemetic

c. Antipsychotic

d. Postural hypotension

e. Parkinson’s

.

Ans. D

.

37. Regarding anti epileptic drugs, which one is incorrect

a. Diazepam inhibits GABAchannels

b. Ethusuxsimide act via blocking of K channels

c. Phenytoin prolongs the inactivated stated on Na Channels

d. Vigabatrin irreversibly block the enzyme

.

Ans. B. Ethosuximide blocks thalamic T-type Ca+ channels.

.

38. Endogeneous muscle relaxant is

a. Endorphin

b. Nitroglycerine

c. MGSO4

d. Diazepam

.

Ans. A

.

39. Ketamine used in repeated burn dressings because

a. It does not cause hypotension

b. Causes profound analgesia

c. It can be given intravenously

d. It does not causes addiction

e. Its not narcotic

.

Ans. B

.

40. Local anaesthetic used during epidural analgesia that has least fetal to maternal ratio:

a. Bupivacane

b. Lidocaine

c. Mepivacaine

d. Etidocain

.

Ans. A

.

41. best time for intravenous prophylactic antibiotic Administration is

A. 12 hours before surgery

B. 6 hours before surgery

C. At the end of the operation

D. At the time of change of first dressing

E. At the time of induction of anaesthesia

.

Ans. E

.

42. which one of the following statements explains most Correctly the effects of curare on striated muscles

A. It affects the formation of the enzyme cholinestrase

B. It inhibits the development of an action potential in the nerve fiber

C. It makes the nerve cell end-plate more permeable to Acetylcholine

D. It prevents depolarization of the post synaptic membrane

E. It stimulates the formation of acetylcholine at the nerve cell end-plate

.

Ans. D

.

SURGERY

43. re.gardinc: succinylcholine (suxamethonium) followir g Statements are true except that

A. Ii is a depolarising type of neuromuscular blocker

B. Muscle paralysis is preceded by muscle twitching

C. Overdose effects are reversed by neostigmine

D. Rate of metabolism markedly differs in different persons

E. Use with halothane may sometimes cause malignant hyperthermia

.

Ans. C

.

44. Recognized side-effects of phenytoin include except

A. Ataxia

B. Epilsptic seizures

C. Folate depletion

D. Gum hyperplasia

E. Hlirsutism

.

Ans. B

.

45. regardii4g barbiturates, all of the following are true except;

A. Are rapidly excreted in acid urine

B. Are usually metabolized in the liver

C. Depress the respiratory centre

D. Have anticonvulsant properties

E. Inhibit the activity of certain liver enzyme systems

.

Ans. A

.

46. Gallamine triethiodide causes paralysis of muscles by

A. Blocking interneurons in spinal cord

B. Blocking release of activator ca2+ in the sarcoplasm

C. Blocking the synthesis of acetylcholine in motor nerve endings

D. Competing with acetylcholine at motor end plate

E. Depolarizing motor end-plate

.

Ans. D

.

47. a 16 year old female is induced with thiopental and succinyl Chloride. Anesthesia is maintained with halothane. The patient is spontaneously ventilating. The most reliable Feature of malignant hyperthermia is

A. Hypertension

B. Increased pco2

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Tachycardia

E. Tachypnea

.

Ans. B

.

48. an 18 year old boy had motor vehicle accident. On x-ray chest he Fracture of right 5th and 6th ribs.Which will be the most appropriate local anaesthetic to relieve his pain for a longer duration

A. Bupivacaine

B. Cinchocaine

C. Lignocaine

D phenol

E. Procainamide

.

Ans. A

.

49. drug blocks neuromuscular transmission is

A. Di isopropyl fluorophosphate

B. Methacholine

C. Neostigmine

D. Physostigmine

E. Tubocurarine

.

Ans. E

.

50. rapid eye movement (rem) sleep can be induced by

A. Barbiturates

B. Benzodizepines

C. Halothane

D. Morphine

E. No known drug can do it

.

Ans. E

.

51. a young man was operated for inguinal hernia under general Anaesthesia. In the recovery room nurse rushed and reported That the patient ws not breathing. He was cyanosed. The most Likely drug which caused this problem is

A. Diazepam

B. Fialothane

C. Neosticimine

D. Pancuronium

E. Pentazocin

.

Ans. D

.

52. recognized s:de-effects of phenytuin does not include;

A. Ataxia

B. Epileptic, seizures

C. Rotate depletion

D. Gum hyperplasia

E. Hirsutism

.

Ans. B

.

53. a 30 year old labourer is brought to the hospital in a comatose State with constricted pupil and depressed respiration. He is Diagnosed to be under the influence of a large dose of Morphine. The best drug to antagonise morphine effects in this Patient is

A. Dexamphetamine

B. Flumezanidl

C Nalorphine

D. Naloxone

E. Peutazocine

.

Ans. D

.

54. a 12-year old boy suffers from generalised tonic – clonic Epileptic seizures. He is on antiepileptic drugs for the last one Year. Recently he has developed painful swelling of his_gums in Addition to the earlier problems of nystagmus and ataxia. These Adverse effects are most likely due to

A. Carbamazepine

B. Clonazepam

C. Phenobarbitone

D. Phenytoin

E. Valproic acid

.

Ans. D. Phenytoin causes gingival hyperplasia (swelling of gums).

.

55. when halothane is used alone as general anaesthetic, 11′ do s Not produce quick induction and good analgesia. Which of t Following drugs is used with it for making 1.3p both of these Deficiencies

A desflurane

B. Ether

C Etomidate

D Nitrous oxide

E. Thioperitone

.

Ans. D

.

  • Being a weak anesthetic, NO is used with other anesthetics to reduce their dose.
  • Though NO is a weak anesthetic, it has a rapid onset (and rapid recovery).

    .

    56. naloxone

    A. Can be given by ntranaiscukr route

    B. Can precipitate acute opioid withdrawl in an addict

    C. °cannot be given by continous infusion

    D. Has a narrow therapeutic index

    E. Is effective within 30 seconds

    .

    Ans. B

    .

    57. Which one of allowing is Antagonist of Morphine Poisoning?

    A. Naloxone

    B. Neostigmine

    C. Diazepam

    D. Atropine

    E. Frusemide

    .

    Ans. A

    .

    58. Which of the following is effect of CURARE drugs of skeletal muscle fiber?

    A. Affects the cholinesterase activity

    B. Increase the release of acetylcholine

    C. Inhibit the depolarization of postsynaptic membrane

    D. Cause stimulation of postsynaptic membrane

    E. Bled the receptors on postsynaptic membrane

    .

    Ans. C

    .

    59. During giving the General Anesthesia to a patient, Halothane has less analgesia Et is difficult to induce. Which of the following drugs is given before Hatothane to minimize this problem.

    A. Nitroflurane

    B. Nitrous Oxide

    C. Thiopentone

    D. Enflurane

    E. Diazepam

    .

    Ans. B

    .

    60. Succinylcholine is used during anesthesia as skeletal muscle relaxant. Which is the Enzyme responsible for its metabolism?

    A. Acetyl cholinesterase

    B. Pseudocholine esterase •

    C. Phosphorylase

    D. Succinyl cholinesterase

    E. Plasma cholinesterase

    .

    Ans. B

    .

    61- A patient after the chest injury is brought to emergency room. Third & fourth ribs are Fractured. For the prevention of pain which of the following local anesthetics with long Duration of action should be used in this patient?

    A. Lignocaine

    B. Bupivicaine

    C. Cinchocane

    D. Procainamide

    E. Cocaine

    .

    Ans. B

    .

    62- An unconscious pt. Does not respond even after he is given naloxone, wat drug he has taken?

    A. Morphine

    B. Heroine

    C. Pethidine

    D. Phenobarbitone

    .

    Ans. D

    .

    63. Drug that causes constipation

    A. Amoxicillin

    B. Coichicines

    C. Diamorphin

    D. Digoxin

    .

    Ans. C

    .

    64. Morphine causes’

    A) bradypneaarlliosis

    B) bradypneaamyddasis

    CI tachypnea amiosis

    D) tachypnea amydrasis

    .

    Ans. A

    .

    65. Which is correct statement regarding the anesthetic agents

    A) Thiopental decreases heart rate

    B) Ketamine is bronchoditator

    C) Thiopental increases heart rate

    D) 11alothane is safe in ao

    E) None of the istorrect

    .

    Ans. B

    .

    66. Dependence does not develop to which one of the followings effects of (molds

    A) Pupittary constriction

    B) Pupittary dilatation

    C) Effect on CVS

    D) Respiratory depression

    E) Both C and D

    .

    Ans. A

    .

    MEDICINE

    67. Regarding REM sleep

    A. Low threshold for wakening

    B. Beta waves

    C. Enuresis

    D. Simbutism

.

Ans. B

.

68. Which drug has action similar to atropine

A. Succinylcholine

B. Scopolamine

C. Hexamethonium

D. Carbachol

.

Ans. B

.

69. Endogenous muscle relaxant is

A. Endorphin

B. Nitroglycerine

C. Mgso4

D. Salbutamol

.

Ans. A

.

70. Which of the following is Pharmacokinetic action of the durg

A. Bone marrow suppression by Methotrexate reversed with aspirin

B. Morphine induced respiratory depression with nalaxone

C. Beta beta-blockers induced asthma-a can be relieved with Hydrazaline

D. Adverse effect of levodopa can be increased by carbidopa

.

Ans. B

.

71. A Pt known case of epilepsy is suffering from episode of tonic clonic seizures. Physcian is trying to stop it since half an hour but has failed to do so. What should be the drug Of choice now

A. Diazepam

B. Lorazepam

C. Alprazolam

D. Midazolam

.

Ans. B

.

72. A person with the history of drug intake excessive amount, Naloxon was given but the Person has not responded what drug It may be

A. Morphine

B. Opium

C. Organnophosphorus

D. Phenobarbitone

E. Pethidine

.

Ans. C

.

73. A semiconscious patient is brought to the emergency room. He has history of taking Some unknown drug. Nahco3 reverses the action of the drug. Which drug the pt has Likely taken:

A. Phenobarbital

B. Phenothiazine

C. Morphine

D. Diazepam

E. Alcohol

.

Ans. A

.

74. Example of Drug-Drug interaction is

A. Morphine with Naloxone

.

Ans. A

.

75. Diazepam relaxes skeletal muscle by acting on:

A. Cerebral cortex

B. NMJ

C. Muscle directly

D. Intemeuron

.

Ans. D

.

76. Analgesic effect of morphine is useful for:

A. Terminal cancer pain

B. Head injury

C. Binary colic pain

D. Ulcer pain/upper 21 hemorrhage

E. COPD

.

Ans. A

.

GYNAE

77. A semiconscious patient is brought to emergency department. He has history of taking some unknown drug. NaHCO2 reverses the action of drug. Which drug he has most likely taken?

A. Phenobarbital

B. Phenothiazine

C. Morphine

D. Diazepam

E. Alcohol

.

Ans. A

.

78. During general anesthesia Halothane is given in combination with which of the following drugs?

A. Thiopentone

B. Nitric oxide

C. Enfluran

D. Phenobarbital

E. Ketamine

.

Ans. B

.

79. In which of the following conditions there is increased half life of succinylcholine?

A. Acetyl cholinesterase deficiency

B. Plasma cholinesterase deficiency

C. Succinylcholineesterase deficiency

D. High doses of h..ethane

.

Ans. B

.

80. Half life dopamine is:

A. 02 minutes

B. 15 minutes

C. 24 minutes

D. 60 minutes

E. 05 minutes

.

Ans. A

.

81. Which of the following is the least likely side effect of Phenytoin?

A. Mental retardation

B. Cataract

C. Limb defects

D. Cardiac defects

.

Ans. C

.

82. In drug receptor relations which one is incorrect?

a) Bradycardia Propranolol

b) Thesis Pilocarpine

c) Skeletal Muscle Paralysis — Tubocurarine

d) Bronchodilation Salbutamol

.

Ans. C

.

83. 1f you give L Dopa to the pt of Parkinsonism which hormone will decrease?

a) Prolactin

b) FSH,LH

c) Testosterone

.

Ans. A

.

84. A pregnant women is on Phenytoin, what is the least likely complication in fetus?

a) Bone deformity

b) Mental retardation

c) Cleft palate

.

Ans. A

.

EYE

85. Carbidopa inhibits which of the following enzymes

A. Dopa decarboxylase

B. Tyrosine kinase

C. Dopamine hydroxytase

D. Dope oxygenase

.

Ans. A

.

ANESTHESIA

86. T 1/2 of desmethyl diazepam, an inactive metabolite of diazepam is:

a. 20-50 hrs

b. 50-100 hrs

c. 100-200 hrs

d. 36-200 hrs

.

Ans. D

.

MIXED

87. Which of the following nerve fibers is first blocked by the local anesthetic

A. Motor fibers

B. Large pain fibers

C. Sensory touch fibers

D. Small deep pain fibers

E. Vibration sense fibers

.

Ans. D

.

88. A patient after the chest injury is brought to emergency room, third 13 tooth ribs are fractured. For the prevention of pain which of the following local anesthetics with long duration of action should be used in this patient?

A. LIgnocain

B. Bupivicane

C. Cinchocaine

D. Procainamlde

E. Cocaine

.

Ans. B

.

89. The administration of focal anesthetics will result in all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Tachycardia

B. Vasodilation

C. Myocardial depression

D. Seizures

E. Failure of anesthesia in acidotic tissues

.

Ans. A

.

90. L -Dopa treatment of parkinson’s disease is most likely in dramatic improvements in:

A. Mood

B. Tremor

C. Long term disease progression

D. Strength

E. Hypokinesia

.

Ans. E

.

91. The best treatment of pain in a patient with myocardial infarction is;

A. Morphine

B. Nitrates

C. Streptokinase

D. Aspirin

E. NSAIDS

.

Ans. B

.

.

.

.

Musculoskeletal, Skin, Connective Tissue Pharma MCQs (FCPS Part 1)

musculoskeletal pharma fcps part1 mcqs

Musculoskeletal, Skin, Connective Tissue Pharma MCQs (FCPS Part 1)

 

1. Which drug causing minimal GI side effects

a. Paracetamol

b. Aspirin

c. Ibuprofen

d. Ketorolac

e. Diclofenac

.

Ans. A

.

DIFFERENCES BETWEEN NSAID’s and ACETAMINOPHENS

.

  • NSAIDs (e.g. aspirin) causes peptic ulcer; while acetaminophens (e.g., paracetamol) do not.
  • Another important difference between NSAID’s and acetaminophens is that NSAID’s are nephrotoxic while acetaminophens are hepatotoxic.

    .

    2. Aspirin is not given in;

    a. Peptic ulcer

    b. MI

    c. Angina

    d. All of above

.

Ans. A

.

  • NSAID’s cause peptic ulcer; so they should be avoided in peptic ulcer.
  • COX-2 inhibitors and acetaminophen (e.g., paracetamol) can be used in peptic ulcer as analgesics.

    .

    3. Following Drugs inhibit both COX-1 as well as COX-2 except

    a. Diclofenic

    b. Naproxen

    c. Aspirin

    d. Meloxicam

.

Ans. D

.

  • NSAIDs (diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin) inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2.
  • Meloxicam inhibits COX-2 only.

    .

    4. Aspirin should be stopped before surgery. For how many days the effect of aspirin remains

    a. 7-9 days

    b. 3-4 days

    c. 10-12 days

    d. 14-16 days

    e. 2 days

.

Ans. A. Aspirin irreversibly blocks platelets function. New platelets are formed within about seven days.

.

5. Paracetamol

a. Increases PT

b. Its overdose causes nephrotoxicity

c. Is a poor anti-inflammatory

d. Is more stronger than codeine

.

Ans. C

.

6. Pharmakokinetic interaction among drugs is examplified by :

a. Shortening of action of Procaine by Adrenaline

b. Increase peripheral toxicity of Levodopa with Carbidopa

c. Increase toxicity of Methotrexate by Aspirin

d. Prevention of Nitroglycerine induced tachycardia by Propranolol

e. Blockade of acetylcholine receptors by atropine

.

Ans. E

.

7. A CLD patient presents with Haematemesis. The preferred immediate treatment is

a. Octeriotide

b. Vit K

c. Formed Platelet Conc.

d. PPI

e. Whole blood

.

Ans. A

.

8. Which one of the following is potent COXII inhibitor

a. Aspirin

b. Celecoxib

c. Indomethacin

d. Meloxicam

e. Piroxicam

.

Ans. D

.

9. Which one of the following is potent COX-II Inhibitor

a. Aspirin

b. Indomethacin

c. Meloxicam

d. Piroxicam

.

Ans. C

.

10. Earliest symptom of aspirin over dosage is

a. Tinnitus

b. Gastric upset

c. Metabolic alkalosis

d. Metabolic acidosis

.

Ans. B

.

11. Which drug binds to COX-2 recepters and not to COX-1

a. Aspirin

b. Indomethacin

c. Piroxicam

d. Meloxicam

e. Ibuprofen

.

Ans. D

.

12. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by inhibiting :

a. Thromboxane A2

b. Prostaglandins

c. Endothelial cells

d. Leukotrienes

.

Ans. A. [Option A] – Thromboxane A2 inhibits platelets aggregation. {Option B] – Prstaglandins inhibits inflammation.

.

13. Which of the following drugs irreversibly blocks platelet action…

a. Asprin

b. Naproxen

c. Diclofenac

.

Ans. A

.

14. Treatment of salicylate poisoning which can increase the excretion of salicylate is

a. I/v NAHCO3

b. Dehydration state

c. Diuretics

d. 10% D/W

.

Ans. A. NaHCO3 increases urinary volume and it’s alkalinization, thus facilitating salicylate renal elimination.

.

15. In low doses aspirin acts on:

a. Cyclooxygenase

b. Thromboxane A2

c. PGI2

d. Lipoxygenase

.

Ans. B

.

16. Inhibition of 5 lipoxygenase is useful in

a. Cardiac Faliure

b. Bronchial Asthma

c. Hepatic Faliure

d . Arthritis

.

Ans. B

.

17. Asprin is used as a blood thinner because it blocks the formation of

a. Leukotreine

b. Thrombin

c. Thromboxane

d. Cox-2

.

Ans. C

.

18. Progress to grade 4 hepatic encaphelopathy is caused by

a. Alcohol

b. Uremia

c. Paracetamole

d. Diuretics

.

Ans. C

.

19. Which of the following drug irreversibly blocks platelet action

a. Asprin

b. Naproxen

c. Diclofenac

d. Acetaminophen

.

Ans. A

.

20. a 60 year old male was on aspirin on the advise of his cardiologist This patient needs to have his inguinal hernia repaired. He has b Asked to stop aspirin as it effects the ability of the platele—s Aggregate. How soon can he be safely operated after stopping The aspirin

A. 1 – 3 days

B. 10 – 12 days

C. 13 – 14 days

D. 4 – 6 days

E 7 – 9 days

.

Ans. E

.

21. Mechanism of action of aspirin

A) Aggravates thromboxanes

B) Activates platelets

C) Stabilizes the vascular endothelium

D) Irreversibly Works COX

E) All of them

.

Ans. D

.

22. Regarding spinal nerve

A. All nerves receive white rami

B. Dorsal rami of the nerve is large branch

C. Formed at intervertebral foramen

.

Ans. C

.

23. Advanced stage ( grade iv) encephalopathy with acute renal failure, which drug?

A. Paracetamol

B. Ethylene glycol

C. Valproic

D. Halothane

E. Arninoglycosice

.

Ans. A

.

24. A person with respiratory alkalosis and high respiratory rate has presented In ER with, The history of drug poisoning which drug it may be

A. Salicylates

B. Morphine

C. Atropine

D. Organophsphorous

E. Lbubrofin

.

Ans. A

.

25. Regarding paracetamol what is correct.

A. Increase PT

B. Inhibit ptatetete aggregation

C. Has low anti•Inflrnmatory effect

D. Is Nephrotoxic

E. Causes methearnoglobin more than phenacetin

.

Ans. C

.

26. Which one of the following is cox-ii inhibitor?

A. Aspirin

B. Ibuprofen

C. Indomethacin

D. Metoxicam

E. Piroxicam

.

Ans. D

.

27. Which one of the following is a selective cox-2 inhibitor:

A. Meloxicam

B. Piroxicarn

C. Indomethacin

D. Aspirin

E. Ibuprofen

.

Ans. A

.

28. Grade-iv encephalopathy is caused by?

A. Alcohol

B. Paracetomol

C. Ethylene glycol

D. Amphetamine

.

Ans. B

.

29. Patient presented with reparatory depression which is not responding to naloxone , Find out the drug responsible?

A. Morphine

B. Methadone

C. Phenobarbitone

D. Heroin

E. Pethidine

.

Ans. C

.

30. In acetylsalicylic acid poisoning which is incorrect?

A. Increased ph

B. Increased ventilation

C. Decreased ph

D. Right shift of oz hb dissociation curve

.

Ans. A

.

31. Patient taking aspirin for prophylaxis of atherosclerosis in order to decrease platelet Aggregation, aspirin will do to by decreasing?

A. Leukvtiierles

B. Thromboxane a2

C. Prostacyclins

D. Protein <

E. Protein s

.

Ans. B

.

32. Mast cell stabilizer.

a. Na chromoglycate

b. ipratropium bromide

c. ACE inhibitor

.

Ans. A

.

.

.

.

Haematology and Oncology Pharma MCQs (FCPS Part 1)

Haematology and oncology pharma fcps part 1 mcqs

Haematology and Oncology Pharma MCQs (FCPS Part 1)

 

1. Which of the following drug is most notorious for causing renal toxicity

a. Cisplatin

b. Cyclophosphamide

c. Vincristine

d. Blephamide

.

Ans. A

.

2. What is the drug of choice for DVT in first trimester of pregnancy

a. Aspirin

b. Heparin

c. Warfarin

d. Indomethacin

e. Mefanamic acid

.

Ans. B

.

3. Warfarin affects which one of the following

a. Factor VIII

b. Factor III

c. Prothrombin

d. Factor 5

.

Ans. C

.

  • Warfarin decreases the synthesis of factor 2 (prothrombin), 7, 9, 10, protein C and protein s
  • Heparin acts via thrombin and factor 10.

    .

    4. Warfarin first affect

    A. Protein c

    B. Factor 7

    .

    Ans. A


    5. Regarding chemotherapy all are true except:

    a. Often multi therapy is not curative

    b. Require daily dosing of multiple drugs for long time

    c. Multitherapy is given to decrease drug resistance

    d. All of above

.

Ans. B

.

6. Heparin will inhibit:

a. Clot propagation.

b. Clot organization.

c. Clot retraction

.

Ans. A

.

7. Anticoagulants are indicated in all except

a. Thrombocytopenia

b. Cerebral infarction

c. Prolong bed rest

d. DVT

.

Ans. A

.

8. Regarding Vitamin k deficiency ,following is unusual:

a. Coumarin therapy

b. Bile duct obstruction

c. Red meat ingestion

d. In newborn due to lack of transport through placenta

.

Ans. C

.

9. Histamine and heparin released by

a. Basophils

b. Neutrophils

c. Lymphocytes

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

10. Opoid Toxicity causes

a. Nausea & vomiting

b. Psychosis

c. Pin point pupil

d. Respiratory depression

.

Ans. D

.

11. All of the following drugs can cross placenta except:

a. Phenytoin

b. Diazepam

c. Morphine

d. Heparin

.

Ans. D. Warfarin can cross placenta. So, its contraindicated in pregnancy. In contrast, heparin can not cross placenta; so it can be given during pregnancy. MNEMONIC: Be happy with heparin; don’t war with warfarin.

.

12. Which of the following drugs does not cross the placenta

a. Carbimazole

b. Heparin

c. Diazepam

d. Phenytoin

.

Ans. B

.

13. Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of Heparin Induced thrombocytopenia

a. Abciximab

b. Lepirudin

c. Warfarin

d. Alteplase

.

Ans. B

.

14. True about Heparin is all except

a. Causes Alopecia

b. Acts through AT Ill

c. Increase Lipoprotein lipase

d. Causes Hypokalemia

.

Ans. D

.

15. Antimetabolite that can be used for the treatment of some oncology:

a. Methotraxate

b. Azathioprim

c. 5 Flourouracil

d. Cytarabine

.

Ans. A

.

16. Heparin acts on:

a. Antithrombin III

b. Thrombin

c. Xa

d. XII

.

Ans. A

.

17. when heparin is given to a patient with venous thrombosis, it Will prevent

A. Dissolution

B embolization

C. Inflammation

D. Organization

E. Propagation

.

Ans. E

.

18. a 32 year old pregnant woman is told by her physician to avoid Taking aspirin, because it affects

A. Activated partial thrornboplastintiem

B. Bleeding time

C. Platelet count

D. Prothrornbin time

E. Thromboplastin time

.

Ans. B

.

19. A patient is on DMARDS for 10 years now presents with shortness of breath, on pulmonary Function tests, restrictive patter Found, which drug cause such condition:

A. Cyclophosphamide

B. Cyclosporin

C. NSAID

D. Aspirin

E. Methotrexate

.

Ans. E

.

20. A middle aged female of rheumatoid arthritis taking a modifying drug, develops the M.C.V of 116. Which drug is most likely the causative agent?

A. Methotrexate

B. Pencillamine

C. Gold

D. Doxorubicin

E. Chforoquine

.

Ans. A

.

21. A patient is on oral anticoagulant therapy. Which of the following investigations will best Monitor the response of this therapy?

A. Prothrombin time

B. Activated partial thrornboplasin time

C. Bleedino time

D. Serum fibnnogen level

.

Ans. A

.

22. A pt with hormonal therapy, n metastatic carcinoma cause

A. Apoptosis

B. Atrophy

C. Hypertrophy

D. Necrosis

E. Degeneration

.

Ans. D? A?

.

23. Which drug should be given for ti-irombolysis in acute MI

A. Heparin

B. Aspirin

C. Streptokinase

D. Warfarin

.

Ans. C

.

24. Which of the following Anticancer drug has nerphrotoxic effect

A. Methotrexate

B. Bleomycin

C. Cyciophosphamide

D. Cisplastin

.

Ans. D

.

25. Action of Heparin on thrombus Is that it prevent its

A. Embolism

B. Organization

C. Propagation

.

Ans. C

.

26. Heparin monitored by

A. BT

B. PT

C. CT

D. APTT

.

Ans. D

.

27. Reversal of the anticoagulation effect of warfarin is accomplished most quickly by:

A. Lip

B. Vit k

C. Concentrated factor viii

D. Iv calcium

E. Protamine sulphate

.

Ans. A

.

GYNAE

28. Which of the following is the least likely side effect of Warfarin?

A. Optic neuritis

B. Hypoplasia of nails

C. Pascal bone abnormalities

D. Chondroplasia punctuate

.

Ans. A

.

29. Anticoagulants are indicated in all EXCEPT:

a) Thrornbocytopenia

b) Cerebral infarction

c) Prolong bed rest

d) DVT

.

Ans. A

.

30. Which of the followIng drug is most notorious for causing renal toxicity

A. dsplatin

B. cyclophosphamide

C. vincristine

D. blephamide

.

Ans. A

.

31. What is the drug of choice for DVT In first trimester of pregnancy

A. aspirin

B. heparin

C. warfarin

D. indomethacin

E. mefanamic acid

.

Ans. B

.

.

Autonomic Nervous System Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

ANS Pharma mcqs for fcps part 1

Autonomic Nervous System Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

 

1. Which drug has an atropine like action

a. Physostigmine

b. Scopolamine

c. Dopamine

d. Pyridostigmine

.

Ans. B. Both scopolamine (hyoscine) and atropine has anti-muscurinic (anticholinergic) actions.

.

2. Selective beta blockers do not cause

a. Broncho spasm

b. Bronchodilation

c. No effect on bronchus

.

Ans. A

.

  • Selective beta blockers are “Beta-1 selective” antagonists.
  • Lungs contain beta-2 receptors; so selective beta blockers have no effect on lungs.

    .

    3. Centrally acting antihypertensive is

    a. Clonidine

    b. Methyldopa.

    c. Hydralazine

    d. Labetalol

.

Ans. A

.

CLONIDINE

.

  • Clonidine is a centrally acting drug.
  • It causes CNS depression.
  • It is used for:

    .

  • Opoid withdrawl
  • Hypentensive emergency

    .

    4. A 35 yrs old man presented to ER with sweating and salivation. His heart rate Was 45 and BP 60/40 mmhq. What is the treatment of choice

    a. Atropine

    b. Lignocaine

    c. Digoxin

    d. Scopolamine

.

Ans. A

.

ORGANOPHOSPHATE POISONING

.

  • Organophosphates, present in pesticides, irreversibly blocks acetylcholine esterase (which is an enzyme, responsible for breakdown of acetylcholine), resulting in increased parasympathetic activity, which is manifested by:

    .

  • ↑Sweating
  • ↓H.R → ↓B.P

    .

  • Antidotes for organophosphate poisoning include:

    .

  • Atropine (which is a muscarinic antagonist)
  • Pralidoxime (regenerates acetylcholine esterase)

    .

    5. A thyrotoxic patient with atrial fibrillation should be given:

    a. Amiodarone

    b. Beta blocker

    c. Digoxin

    d. None of above

.

Ans. B. In patients of hyperthyroidism/thyrotoxicosis with atrial fibrillation, the drug of choice is beta blockers because:

.

  • They decreases heart rate
  • They decrease the chances of arrhythmias
  • They inhibit the conversion of T4 to T3

    .

    6. Bradycardia is not a feature of

    a. Iv edrophonium

    b. Ocular massage

    c. Puling of extra ocular muscles

    d. Local atropine

.

Ans. D

.

  • Sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate while parasympathetic nervous system decreases heart rate.
  • Therefore, any drug (e.g., atropine) which decreases the activity of parasympathetic system increases heart rate.

    .

    7. Light enters into one eye

    a. Constrict pupil and dilate opposite

    b. No change in size of pupil whose muscuranic receptor blocked by atropine

    c. Dilate pupil whose muscarinic receptor blocked by atropine

    d. None of above

.

Ans. B

.

  • Normally, pupil constricts with light, as a result of parasympathetic stimulation.
  • With muscarinic receptors blocked, acetylcholine can not act on it’s receptors, and hence there will be no change in size of pupil.

    .

    8. Nicotinic ach receptors are

    a. Numerous in CNS

    b. Blocked by curare

    c. Abundant in spinal cord

.

Ans. B. There are two types of acetylcholine receptors: (A) Muscurinic (B) Nicotinic

.

(A) MUSCURINIC BLOCKERS

.

  • Atropine

    .

    (B) NICOTINIC BLOCKERS

    .

    Nicotinic blockers are of two types:

    .

  • GANGLION BLOCKERS: For example, hexamethonium
  • NEUROMUSCULAR BLOCKERS: For example; Curare

    .

    9. Insulin secretion is inhibited by:

    a. Glucagon

    b. Beta blocker

    c. glucophage

.

Ans. B. Though beta blockers decrease insulin secretion, they are not recommended for glycemic control in diabetics.

.

10. Which of the following blocks alpha and beta receptors:

a. Labetalol.

b. Metoprolol

c. Albuterol

d. None of above

.

Ans. A. Non-selective alpha and beta blockers have modified suffixes instead of – olol. The non-selective alpha and beta blockers include:

.

  • Carvedilol
  • Labetalol

    .

    11. Which among the following promotes each others actions

    a. Atropine and reserpine

    b. Amytriptyline and reserpine

    c. Atropine and amitryptyline

    d. None of above

.

Ans. C

.

12. Muscle relaxant that can be given to an asthmatic patient is

a. Atracurium

b. Tubocurare

c. Cisatracurium

d. Suxamethonium

.

Ans. D

.

13. Which among the following muscle relaxants is renally excreted and has long duration of action

a. Tubocurare

b. Vancuronium

c. Pancuroniun

d. Gellamine

.

Ans. C

.

14. Which among following is not a function of beta blockers

a. Negative ionotropic

b. Negative chronotropic

c. Decrease heart rate

d. Used to decrease anxiety

.

Ans. A

.

15. Pheocronwcytoma istreated by

a. Alpha blockers

b. Beta blockers

c. Both Alpha+ Beta

d. None of above

.

Ans. C

.

16. Gardeners spraying insecticieds becomes unconseous and also have increase salivation. Which drug should be given to antagonize symptoms

a. Pralidoxime

b. Atropine

c. Epinephrine

d. All of above

.

Ans. B

.

17. Diagnosed case of thyrotoxicosis came to you with heart rate of 190b/mn. Best treatment is

a. Digoxin

b. Lidocain

c. Verapamil

d Propanalol

.

Ans. D

.

  • Drug of choice for atrial fibrillation is digoxin.
  • However, drug of choice for hyperthyroidism-induced atrial fibrillation is beta blocker (propranolol).

    .

    18. Which one of the following drugs increases gastro-intestinal motility

    a. Glycopyrrolate.

    b. Atropine.

    c. Neostigmine.

    d. Fentanyl.

.

Ans. C

.

19. Acetylcholine increases

a. Stroke volum

b. Heart rate

c. PR interval

d. Cardiac output

.

Ans. C. Acetylcholine is neurotransmitter of parasympathetic nervous system; the parasympathetic nervous system delays the conduction of electrical impulses through the AV node, thus increasing PR segment and PR interval. (PR segment in ECG represents AV nodal conduction; PR interval = P wave + PR segment).

.

20. A female known case of thyrotoxicosis presented in emergency room with heart rate 180/m and ECG shows irregular pulse. Druq of choice will be

a. Amiodrone

b. Beta blockers

c. Digoxin

d. Verapamil

.

Ans. B

.

21. Antidote for mushroom poisoning is

a. Neostigmine

b. Physostigmine

c. Amyl Nitrate

d. Atropine

.

Ans. D

.

22. Recognized side-effects of the propranolol is;

A. – bronchospasm

B. Hyperglycaemils.

C. Paralytic ileus

D. Retinal degeneration

E. Lachycardia

.

Ans. A

.

23. edrophonium would facilitate the initial relaxant-effect of

A. Atracurium

B. Pancurcnium

C. Succinylcholine

D. Tubocurarine

E. Vecuronium

.

Ans. C

.

24. administration of a drug that blocks beta-adrenerc:ac Receptors would be expected to decrease the

A. Force of cardiac contraction

B. Heart rate

C. Secretion of insulin from the b cells in the pancreatic islets

D. Secretion of rennin from the kidneys

E. Secretion of thyroxine

.

Ans. E

.

25. neostigmine and physostigmine differ in that

A. Neostigmine has less effect on skelatal muscle

B. Neostigmine is ineffective when given orally

C. Physostigmine has more effect on the central nervous System

D. Physostigmine is ineffective when given orally

E. The effects of neostigmine are irreversible

.

Ans. C

.

26. in acute surgical abdomen the drug not indicated for relief of Pain is

A. Diclofenic potassium

B. Hyoscine bromide

C. Ketoprofen

D. Morphine

E. Piroxicarri

.

Ans. B

.

27. bradycardia after elective operation under general anesthesia is best prevented by

A. Adrenaline

B. Atropine

C. Fenoterol

D. Lsoprenaline

E. Orciprenaline

.

Ans. B

.

PHYSIO

28. atropene is given before anaesthesia for Aywil

A decrease in incidence of cardiac arrest

B decrease in respiratory secretion

C muscle relaxation

D. Rapid recovery

E smooth induction

.

Ans. B

.

PHARMA

29. A patient of myasthenia gravis well controlled on neostigmine And atropine therapy. For the last few days is experiencing gradually increasing muscle weakness. An injection of Edrophonium produced immediate short lived improvement in his Muscle. Tone. In this patient, you should

A. Decrease neostigmine dose

B. Increase atropine dose

C increase neostigmine dose

D. Withdraw atropine

E. Withdraw neostigmine

.

Ans. C

.

30. a 40 year old housewife is brought to the hospital with severe Abdominal pain. History and clinical examinatioon reveal that She is a case of acute biliary colic. Which of the following Drugs should also be prescribed, besides morphine, to provide Good pain relief

A ampicillin

B. Diazepam

C. Hyoscinebutylbromide

D. Ofloxacillin

E. Fethidine

.

Ans. C

.

31. phentolaiviine and tolazu_ine

A. Are inactive by oral route

B block both alpha and beta receptors

C cause hypertension

D. Cause tachycardia

E. Induce vasospasm in large doses

.

Ans. D

.

32. urinary retention in an elderly man is likely to result from

A. Guanethidine

B. Hydralazine

C. Propranolol

D. Reserpine

E. -frimethaphan

.

Ans. E

.

33. choilnergic drugs which are potentiated by neostigmine Include.

A. Acetylcholine.

B. Carbachol.

C. Pilocarpine.

0. Meeacholine.

E. Bethanocol.

.

Ans. A

.

34. Hyoscine butyl bromide is useful for the treatment of.

A. Motion sickness.

B. Parkinsonism.

C. Myasthenia gravis.

D. Peptic ulcer.

E. Glaucoma.

.

Ans. A

.

35. Drugs which produce postural hypotension includes.

A. Tetramethoniurm

B. Propranolol.

C. Phenoxnthentamine.

D. Halothen.

E. Clonidine

.

Ans. E

.

36. selective agonist at beta-1 adrenoceptors include. Dopamine.

B. Salbutamol.

C. Dobutamine.

D. Adrenaline.

E Propranolol.

.

Ans. C

.

37. carbachol is.

A. A natural alkaloid.

B. A purely muscaranic drug.

C. Resistant to acetylcholine esterase.

D. Neurotic.

E. Used in myasthenia gravis.

.

Ans. C

.

38. atropine is contra-indicated in.

A. Glaucoma

B. Peptic ulcer.

C. Norm! Prostate.

B. Renal conic.

E. Hypopyrexia h.

.

Ans. A

.

39. heart rate is decreased by .

A. Propranolol.

B. Tolazoline.

C. Rifampicin.

D. Gallamine.

E. Adrenaline.

.

Ans. A

.

39. directly acting sympathomimetic drugs include .

A. Phenylephrine.

B. A cebutolol.

C atenolol.

D. Metaramincl.

E. Hydreoxyamphetamim-i.

.

Ans. A

.

40. ganglionic blocking drugs produce .

A. Postural hypertension.

B. Increased salivation.

C. Urinary retention.

D. Increased sweating.

E diarrhea.

.

Ans. C

.

41. atropine is used as a pre-anesthetic medication because it .

A. Relaxes skeietal muscle.

B. Relaxes smooth muscle.

C. Indlisa,sergecretion in respiratory tract.

D. Prevents cardiac arrest.

E. Stimulates respiration.

.

Ans. C

.

42. ergotaraineis .

A. An beta adrencceptor block r.

B. A peripheral vasodilator.

C. Used in the treatment of migraine.

D. Used in the treatment of post partum hemorrhage.

E. Ainbitcryaffect of uterine muscle.

.

Ans. C + D

.

43. adrenaline is a useful. Drug for the treatment of .

A T.b.

B. Anaphylactic shock.

C. heart failure.

D. Cataract.

E..Severehypo!ension caused by prazosin.

.

Ans BBB

.

44. Compared to propranolol,atenolol is

A. More lipid soluble.

E. Ivic)re likely to aggravate bronchial asthma.

C. A shorter acting drug.

0. More likely to produce c n.s. side effects.

E. Less cardio-selective.

.

Ans. CC

.

45. tachycardia is a common side effect of .

A. 1\1:dradrenahne.

B. Captopril.

C Phenoxybenzamine.

D. Fhenytoin.

E. Prazosin.

.

Ans. C

.

46. muscarinic actions of ac’ .itylcholine are produced at.

A. Adrenal medulla.

B. Pupil.

C. Intestinal skeletal muscle.

D. Skeletal muscle.

E. Sweat glands.

.

Ans. E

.

47. neostigmine is contra-indicated in .

A. Mysthesnia gravis.

B. Glaucoma.

C. Ileus.

D. Myasthenia gravis.

E. Intestinal obstruction.

.

Ans.B.

.

48. therapeutic doses of atropine produce .

A. E3radycardia.

B. Hypertension.

C. Diarrhea.

D. Dryness of mouth.

E. Miosis.

.

Ans. D

.

49. nor-adrenaline after release from nerve endings mainly Removed by .

A. Di-amine oxidase.

B. Catechol-o-methyl transferase.

C. Reuptake into postsynaptic nerve terminals.

D. Dopamine oxidase.

E. Tyrosine hydroxylase.

.

Ans. B

.

50. hypertensive effects of adrenaline can be reversed after pretreatment With .

A. Propranolol.

B. Prazosin.

C. Reserpine.

D. Phenytoin.

E. Clonidine.

.

Ans. B

.

51. which of the following drugs decrease blood pressure by Direct action on sympathetic post ganglionic nerve.

A propranolol

B. Diazoxide.

C. Reserpine.

D. Guanine.

E. Clonidine.

.

Ans. C

.

52. propranolol.Is contraindicated in.

A. Hyperglycemic action of.insulin

B. Raynaud’s phenomenon.

C. Myocardial infarction.

O. Migraine.

E. Hypertension.

.

Ans. B

.

53. sub-cutaneous hyoscineinjection in a normal subject Characteristically produces.

A increase in heart rate.

B. Increase in light reflex,

C. Sedation.

D. Increased blood pressure.

E. Sweating

.

Ans. C

.

54. dilatation of the pupil of eye may be obtained by local Admin’ 3tration of.

A. Homatropine.

B. Physostigmine.

C. Halothen.

D. Salbutamol.

E. Phenylbutazone.

.

Ans. A

.

55. sympathetic ganglia can be.

A. Blocked by a a-methyldopa.

B. Not stimulated by acetylcholine.

C. Not stimulated by nicotine.

D. Blocked by pempidine.

E. Stimulated by serotonin.

.

Ans. D

.

56. ephedrine is used in.

A. Bronchospasrn.

B. Headache,

C. Pulmonary hypertension.

D. To prolong duration of infilterative anesthesia.

E. For relief of hypersensitivity reaction.

.

Ans. A

.

57. amphetamine is indicated in following conditions.

A. Narcolcpsy.

B. Peptic ulcer.

C. Obesity.

D. Cardiac infarction.

E. Petitmal epilepsy.

.

Ans. A

.

58. bethanechol is contraindicated for patient with.

A. Glaucoma.

B. Gastrointestinal motility.

C. Hyperthyroidism.

D. Myasthenia gravis

E. Peptic ulcer

.

Ans. E

.

59. meccamylamine.

A. Is a tertiary amine.

B. Do not cross blood brain barrier.

C. Used in treatment of essential hypertension.

D. In toxicity choreiform movements become prominent.

E. Is an adrenergic neuron blocker.

.

Ans. D

.

60. ephedrine is preferred over adrenaline in these conditions.

A. Hypertension during spinal-anesthesia.

B. Anaphylactic shock.

C. Resuscitation in cardiac arrest.

D. Nasal decongestant.

E. Mydriatic.

.

Ans. D

.

61. subcutaneous injection of noradrenaline in man.

A. Reduce systolic blood pressure.

B. Lowers diastolic blood pressure.

C. Produces a tachycardia.

D. Lowers peripheral resistance.

E. Produces predominantly alpha action.

.

Ans. E

.

62. acetylcholine is.

A. Released as chemical transmitter at some postganglionic sympathetic Neurons.

B. Quickly inactivated by butyryl choline esterase.

C. Commonly used in paralytic ileus.

D. Inactivated by choline acetyl transferease.

E. Capable of causing marked hypotension in atropinised animals.

.

Ans. A

.

63. physostigmine .

A. Acts as a direct muscarinic receptor agonist.

B. Is useful in the management of acute atropine overdose.

C. Will reverse the effects of tubocurarine overdose.

D. Has no c.n.s. effects, even in large doses.

E. Will cause blurred near vision on local use in the eyes.

.

Ans. B

.

64. propranolol causes.

A. Decreased exercise tolerance.

B. Nightmares.

C. Tachycardia.

D bronchochilation.

E. Hypertensive episodes.

.

Ans. B

.

65. neostigmine is preferred over other anticholinesterase drugs For use in.

A. Management of acute atropine overdose.

B. Glaucoma.

C. Myasthenia gravis.

D. Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.

E. D-tubocurine in normal dose.

.

Ans. C

.

66. phentolamine.

A. Is an irreversible competitive antagonist of noradrenaline.

B. Acts on alpha-1 receptor only.

C. Has longer duration of action than ithenoxybenzamine.

D. Decreases gastrointestinal motility

E. Acts on both alpha-1 and alpha-‘2’ receptors.

.

Ans. E

.

67. regarding amphetamine.

A. Releases adrenaline, serotonin and dopamine for the nerve terminals in brain.

B. Tachyphylaxisdevelop, after first administration.

C. Cause gut motility.

D. Produces euphoria and excitement.

E. Stimulates appetite.

.

Ans. D

.

68. hexamethonium.

A salivation.

B. Produces peripheral vasoconstriction and increase in skin temperature.

C. Blocks both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia.

D. Like decamethonium is a potent blocker at neuromuscular junction.

E. Increases gastrointestinal tone.

.

Ans. C

.

69. activation of alpha-one adrenoceptors.

A. Is caused by dobutarnine.

B. Results in vasconstriction of skin, mucous and splanchnic blood vessels.

C. Can cause tachycardia.

D. Is not produced by methoxamine.

E. Causes pupillary constriction.

.

Ans. B

.

70. side effects of adrenergic neuron blocking agents include.

A. Failure of ejaculation.

B. Constipation.

C. Postural hypertension.

D. Chest congestion.

E. Mild to moderate hypertension.

.

Ans. A

.

71. terbutaline.

A. Acts by initibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase.

B may not be used for the management of premature labor.

C. Less effective than aminophylline as a bronchodilator.

D. Can also be administered by inhalation.

E. Is contraindicated in pregnancy.

.

Ans. D

.

72. noradrenaline.

A. Is a pure f3-adrenoceptor agonist.

B. Has potent bronchoconstrictor activity.

C. Decreases myocardial oxygen consumption.

D. Increases skeletal muscle blob flow.

E. Elevates pulmonary capillary pressure.

.

Ans. D

.

73. phenoxybenzamine.

A. Is a ccmpititive alpha-adrenprgic antagonist.

B is of therapeutic value in behign prostatic hyperplastia.

C. Inhibits the release of nor-adrenaline from adrenergic nerves.

D. Can be used as nasal decongestant.

E. Reduces arterial pressure by decreasing peripheral resistance and cardiac Output.

.

Ans. E

.

74. trimetaphan.

A. Is a posisynapticaiphal—adrenergic antagonist.

B. Has a slow onset of action.

C. Is primarily a smooth muscle relaxant.

D. Is metabolized by acetylchlolinesterase.

E. Often produce mydriasis.

.

Ans. E

.

75. catecholamines present in the body as neurotransmitters.

A. Tyrosine.

B. Dopa.

C. Bethanechol.

D. Nicoten.

E. Adrenaline.

.

Ans. E

.

76. propranolol is contraindicated in.

A. Prophylaxis of variant angina.

B. Central vasospastic disease.

C. Chronic attack of bronchial asthma.

D. All type of angina.

E. Pheochromocytoma.

.

Ans. A

.

77. isoprenaline.

A. Decreases cardiac output.

B. Causes reflex bradycardia.

C. Has no effect on histamine release.

D. Is not a bronchodialator.

E. May cause hypoglycemia.

.

Ans. C

.

78. sympathomimetics are useful in the treatment of.

A. Peptic ulcer.

B. Parkinsonism.

C. Atony of bladder following surgery.

D. Glaucoma.

E. T.b..

.

Ans. D

.

79. hyoscine differs from atropine in that.

A. It has no cns effect in small doses.

B. It is more effective in glandular secretions.

C. It is more effective in motion sickness.

D. It is longer acting as mydriatic and cycloplegic.

E. It has lesser ability to cross blood—brain barrier.

.

Ans. C

.

80. abrupt cessation of 13—adrenergic blocker therapy may lead to.

A. Angina pectoris.

B. Congestive heart failure.

C. Parkinsonism.

D. Oliguria.

Bronchoconstriction\

.

Ans. A

.

81. metaraminol.

A. Is a directly acting adrenomimetic amine.

B. Has a direct stimulatory action on the heart.

C. Decreases both systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

D. Stnepressor response is accompanied rsu reflex bradycarc,

E. Increases contractile force of the heart.

.

Ans. E

.

82. nor-epinephrine produces the following effects.

A. Decrease in cardiac output.

B. Positive chronotropic effect.

C. Significant decrease in total peripheral resistance.

D. Constriction of renal blood vessel.

E. Slight decrease in mean blood pressure.

.

Ans. D

.

83. terbutaline.

A is metabolized by monoamine oxidase.

B has longer duration of action than aminophylline.

C. Produces more cardiac stimulation than does isoproterenol.

D. Also used for the management of premature labor.

E. Produces bronchodilation by inhibiting cyclic amp in bronchial muscle cells.

.

Ans. D

.

84. phentolamine.

A. Block responses mediated by post synaptic alpha-1 receptors.

B. Produces more profound postural hypotension than phenoxybenzamine.

C. Has no effect on presynaptic alpha-2 receptors.

D. Cardiac stimulation and renin release are less prominent with its use.

E. Hypertensive action is potentiated by co-administration of thiazide.

.

Ans. A

.

85. metabolic effects of epinephrine include.

A. Decreased in oxygen consumption by 20/30%.

B. Decreased blood glucose level.

C. Hepatic glycogenolysis.

D. Lipocienesis in adipose tissue.

E. Decreased blood lactic acid level.

.

Ans. C

.

86. labetalol.

A. Not useful for the postoperative management of patients with Pheochromocytoma.

B. Does not undergoes considerable first pass metabolism.

C. Possesses combined alpha and beta receptor blocking activity.

D. Can be used safely in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

E effects on beta receptors is less pronounced than on alpha receptors.

.

Ans. C

.

87. overdose of acetylcholine produces.

A. No spread nincotinic effects.

B. Vasodilation within the minor vascular beds.

C. Slight increase ir►systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

D. W./driasis.

E lacrimation.

.

Ans. E

.

88. bethanechol.

A. Used in preoperative urinary retention.

B. Partially resistant to breakdown by cholinesterases.

C. Indicated in bronchial asthma.

D. Produces prominent cardiovascular effects even at low doses.

E. `3irtually devoid of nicotinic activity.

.

Ans. E

.

89. regarding muscarinic blocking drugs.

A. Have intrinsic activity.

B. Act through blockade of receptor stimulation.

C. Increase tone and motility in gastro intestinal tract.

D. Sweating.

E. Aggravate bronchial asthma.

.

Ans. B

.

90. combination of 13-adrenoreceptor stimulation & alpha Adrenoreceptor blockade cause.

A. Uterine contraction.

B. Bronchoconstriction.

C. Bradycardia.

D. Vasodila:ion

E. Mydriasis.

.

Ans. D

.

91. guanethidine.

A. Blocks the norepinephrine synthesis.

B. Increases noradrenaline release from adrenergic neurons.

C. Causes severe constipation.

D. Blocks the actions of exogenously administered epinephrine.

E. May cause failure of ejaculation.

.

Ans. E

.

92. physostigmine.

A. Acts as a direct muscarinic receptor agonist.

B. Is useful in the management of chronic atropine overdose.

C. Will reverse the effects of tubocurarine overdose.

D. Has no cns effects even in large doses.

E. Will cause blurred near vision on local use in the eyes.

.

Ans. B

.

93. propranolol is indicated in.

A. Peptic ulcer.

B. Micners disease.

C. Congestive cardiac failure.

D bronchial asthma.

E Angina pectoris.

.

Ans. E + C ???

.

94. phenoxybenzamine, an irreversible alpha adrenoreceptor Antagonist, is .

A. Used tp control the hypotension in pheochromocytoma.

B. Able to maintain blockade even in large amounts of catecholamines.

C. Used to control essential hypertension.

D. Aole to produce diuresis.

E. Antagonized physiologically, in case of excess effects by a pressor agent, that Does act via alpha receptors.

.

Ans. B

.

95. all of the following are true for muscarinic cholinergic Receptors except .

A. Bind acetylcholine.

B. Biiidmuscarine with high affinity.

C. Bind.,..’jtine with high affinity.

D .16 in theme heart and other autonomic effector organs.

.

Ans. C

.

96. which of the agent is a reversible inhibitor of cholinesterase And is clinically used in the symptomatic treatment of Myasthenia gravis .

A. Diisopropylfluorophosphate.

B. Atropine.

C. Pilocarpine.

D. Carbachol.

E. Neostigmine.

.

Ans. E

.

97. hyoscine

A. Is absorbed to a lesser extent than atropine from gastrointestinal tract.

B. Is not absorbed after transdermal application.

C. Administration can result in secondary bradycardia.

D. Is free from any effect in the lower esophageal sphincter.

E. Unlike atropine is not contraindicated in patients with wide-angle glaucoma.

.

Ans. A

.

98. atropine .

A. Is dl-hyoscyarnine.

B. May interrupt short-term memory.

C. May show no exaggerated effects in negroes.

D. Sulphate has more marked effects to central nervous system than hyoscine.

E. Causes vasodilatation due to anticholinergic effect in blood vessels.

.

Ans. A

.

99. neostigmine

A is a prosthetic acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.

B. Produces the same duration of acetylcholinesterase inhibition as Pyridostigmine.

C. Elimination is influenced by renal failure.

D. Is not effective in overcoming any aminoglyoside-induced potentiation of Neuromuscular blockade.

E. Should not be used to a:i:ac?onize neuromuscular block in patients with Glaucoma.

.

Ans. A

.

100. which of the following compounds would have the highest Selective affinity for beta adrencreceptors

A. Epinephrine.

B. Isoproterenol.

C. Norepinephrine.

D. Adesosine tri phosphate (atp)

E. Dopamine.

.

Ans. B

.

101. all of the following statements concerning the systemic Effects of norepinephrine are true except

A. Decreased diastolic pressure.

B. Increased systolic pressure.

C. Tachycardia, then reflex bradycardia.

D. Decreased peripheral resistance.

E. Decreased resistance in skeletal muscle.

.

Ans. C

.

102. proppanolol

A. Reduces intraocular pressure by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase enzyme.

B. Produces bonefic1;11 effects in thyrotoxicosis by inhibiting iodide transport.

C. Inhibit renin acting centrally.

D. Produces sedation lethargy, depression and disturbed sleep.

E increases incidence of myocrdialreinfarction by reducing oxygen demand and

Platelet aggregation.

.

Ans. D

.

103. amphetamine

A. Is a catecholamine.

B. Acts directly in adrengegic receptor.

C. Is ao.n.s. stimulant and a drug of abuse potential.

D. Is not used in hyperkinetic syndrome in children.

E. Is commonly used in obesity as an anorexiant.

.

Ans. C

.

104. alpha adrenoceptors

A. Are classified in a similar way to beta-adrenoceptors i.e. Alpha-1- receptors in The heart and alpha 2-receptors in other tissues e.g. Lung.

B. The classical alpha-receptor is located post-junctionally.

C. P-adrenoceptor antagonists have useful antihypertensive properties.

D. Nopradrenaline stimulates only beta-adrenoceptors.

E. Stimulation of alpha 2-adrenoceptors can raises blood pressure.

.

Ans. B

.

105. following actions of epinephrine are mediated through beta-1 Receptors.

A. Tachycardia.

B. Vasoconstriction.

C. Uterine relaxation.

D. Bronchodilation.

E. Vasodilation in the skeletal muscle vascular bed.

.

Ans. A

.

106. therapeutic uses of alpha adrenoceptor antagonists include.

A. Supra ventricular tachycardia.

B. Angina pectoris.

C. Normal prostate size.

D. Pheochromocytoma.

E. Extrinsic bronchial asthma.

.

Ans. D

.

107. following atropinization, nor-epinephrine will produce.

A. Negative inotropic effect.

B. Dilatatior: of cutaneous blood vessels.

C. Significant bradycardia.

D. Marked decrease in cardiac out put.

E. Marked increase in systolic blood pressure.

.

Ans. E

.

108. Dopamine (half-life of 02 minutes), is given to a patient in continues infusion. The drug Will effect only when It reached its steady state concentration in blood. How much time Is required for the drug to start its action after the infusion is started? Am

A. 04 minutes OB.

B. 09 minutes

C. 15 minutes

D. 30 minutes

E. 45 minutes

.

Ans. B

.

109. Atropine is given before general anesthesia to:

A. Reduce respiratory secretions

B. Smoothly induce anesthesia

C. Increase blood pressure

D. To increase heart rate

E. Muscular relaxation

.

Ans. A

.

110. Dopamine half life is 2min, it h given in continuous infusion and shows its Effects when reaches it steady state conc in blood. How much time it takes to start its action after

Infusion.

A. 4 min

B. 9 min

C. 15 min

D. 30 min

E. 45 min

.

Ans. B

.

MEDICINE

111. Which of the following drugs have side effect of erectile impotence?

A. Frusemide

B. Nitroglycerine

C. Propranoloi

D. Diazepam

E. Hydrochlorothiazide.

Ans. C

.

112. A young female with excessive sal nation and lacr1a’ation, b.p 80/70 mmhg and

heart reate is 45, drug of choice is

A. Atropine

B. Neostigmine

C. Tacrine

D. Danepezil

E. Physostigmine

.

Ans. A

.

113. Atropine is contraindicated in

A. Mydriasis

B. Angle closure glaucoma

C. Premedication with ECT

.

Ans. B

.

114. Which one is not the effect of Atropine

A. Increase in rate and depth of respiration

B. Restlessness

C. Decrease in NREM sleep

D. Mydriasis

.

Ans. B

.

115. Regarding beta blocker most inappropriate is

A. Increased release of rennin from kidney

B. Negative chronotropic

C. Negative ionotroplc

D. Enictile impotence

.

Ans. A

.

116. Which one is the CI-45 effect of atropine

A. Increase in rate Et depth of respiration

B. Restlesness

C. Decrease in NREM steep

D. Mydriasis

.

Ans. B

.

117. Patient on htn mods presents with increase Indirect bilirubm .. Drug most likely involved:

A. Methyldopa

B. Hydralazine

C. Hydrochlorthlaflde.

D. Clonline

E Beta blacker

.

Ans. A

.

118. Angina may be worsened by?

A. Atropine

B. Salbutamol

C. Theophylline

D. Vasopressin

E. Verapamit

.

Ans. C

.

EYE

119. A Lady Has Developed Red Eye, Severe Pain, Blurring Of Vision after Instillation Of Eye Drops What Was That Eye Drops

(a) Atropine

(b) Pilocarpine

(c) Sympatholytic

(d) Parasympathomimctic

.

Ans. A

.

120. A pt takes excess amount of atropine-beside other treatment. Doctor should give

a. acetylcholine

b. physostigmine

c. pyridostigmine

.

Ans. B

.

ANESTHESIA

121. alpharecptors effects

a. Inc HR

b. lipogenesis

c. midriasis

d. plloerector contraction

e. bronchodilator

.

Ans. C

.

122. Promotes each others actions

a. atropine and reserpine

b. amytriptylme and rescrpine

c. atropine and amitryptyline

.

Ans. B

.

.

.

.

GIT Pharma MCQs (FCPS Part 1)

GIt pharma mcqs for fcps part 1

GIT Pharma MCQs (FCPS Part 1)

 

1. Difference b/w cimetidine and ranitidine is that ranitidine

a. Is less effective

b. Has less CNS side effects

c. Has decrease gastric motility

d. Has more CNS effects

.

Ans. B. Cimetidine can cross the blood brain barrier while ranitidine can not.

.

2. Which among the following anti emetic has maximum bioavalability

a. Ondansteron

b. Cyclizine

c. Droperidol

d. Metoclopramide

e. PPorcholrperazine

.

Ans. D. Odansetron has 60% bioavailabilty; metoclopramide has 80% bioavailability.

.

3. Drug of choice for acute pancreatitis is

a. Pethidine.

b. Morphine.

c. Paracetamol

.

Ans. A. Pethidine is the drug of choice for acute pancreatitis. Note that morphine is contraindicated in acute pancreatitis.

.

4. Warfarin effect is increased by

a. Cimetidine

b. Propanolol

c. Heparin

d. None of above

.

Ans. A. Warfarin is metabolized by cytochrome P450 in the liver. Cimetadine inhibits cytochrome P450, thus decreasing the metabolism and increasing the effect of any drug which is metabolized by cytochrome P450, including warfarin.

.

5. Drug that decreases the tone of lower esophageal sphincter & increases gastric emptying is

a. Metaclopromide.

b. Mosa pride

c. Cisa pride

.

Ans. A

.

6. A CLD patient presents with Haematemesis. The preferred immediate treatment is

a. Octeriotide

b. Vit K

c. Formed Platelet Conc.

d. PPI

e. Whole blood

.

Ans. A

.

7. Acid suppression is done by blocking:

a. H2 Receptor.

b. H1 receptor

c. Both a and b

.

Ans. A

.

8. H-K-ATPase pump is blocked by

a. Omeprazole

b. Cimetidine

c. Bismuth

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

9. Gastroparesis treatment is

a. Metoclopramide

b. Cisapride

c. Mosa pride

.

Ans. A

.

10. Diabetic patient taking oral hypoglycemic drugs complain of abdominal fullness. Which drug can be given to decrease

qastropresis

a. Omeprazol

b. Cimetidine

c. Antacids

d. Metclopramide

.

Ans. D

.

11. A 21 year old having severe Ulcerative Colitis. Which of the following is indicated

a. Azathioprine

b. IV Corticosteroides

c. Sulfasalazine

d. None of above

.

Ans. B

.

12. Which one of the following is a PPI

a. Omeprazole.

b. Cimetidine

c. Metoclopramide

.

Ans. A

.

13. H2 blockers

a. Decrease HCL secretion

b. Delay gastric emptying

c. Increase HCL

d. None of above

.

Ans. A

.

14. Regarding anti-emetics

a. Ondansterone is effective in cytotoxicity induced vomiting more than metoclopramide

b. Metoclopramide bioavailabilty is less

c. Metoclopramide no role in gatroparesis

d. None of above

.

Ans. A. If chemotherapy-induced vomiting is not controlled by metoclopramide, odansetron should be given.

.

15. In a patient taking oral contraceptive, the chance of pregnancy increases after taking any of the following drugs except:

a. Phenytoin

b. Carbamazepine

c. Ampicillin

d. Cimetidine

.

Ans. D. Cimetidin is antiandrogenic, i.e., it inhibits ovulation and pregnancy.

.

16. Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when

a. Given before meals

b. Given with meals

c. Along with an H2 blocker

d. Given after meals

.

Ans. A

.

17. Which drug is not acetylated.

a. INH

b. Dapsone

c. Hyderalazine

d. Metoclopropamide

.

Ans. D

.

18. Frequent adverse effect of cimitidine is :

a. Inhibits hepatic metabolism/enzyme

b. Agranulocytosis

c. Anti-estrogenic effect

d. Hypertension

e. SLE

.

Ans. A

.

19. Which antacid causes slow gastric emptying

a. Aluminium hydroxide

b. Calcium corbonate

c. Magnesium hydroxide

d. NaHCO3

.

Ans. A

.

20. If cimetidine and sucralfate are given together, effect wil be

a. Decrease absorption

b. Antagonize effects

c. Inhibit function

d. Delayed effect

.

Ans. A

.

21. extrapyramidal side effects are seen with

A. Chlorambucil

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Chlorpheniramine

D. Chlorproprarnide

E. Metoclopramide

.

Ans. E

.

22. in a patient of peptic ulcer, truncal vagotomy will reduce the Ga secretion by

A. 0 – 15%

B. 1 b – 30%

C. 31 -50%

D. 51 – 70%

E. 71 – 90%

.

Ans. C

.

23. prolonged use of drug which does not cause gynaecomastia is

A. Cimetidine

B. Digoxin

C Famopsin

0. Largectil

E. Marzine

.

Ans. E

.

24. a 20 year old man was prescribed a medicine by his family Physician. He was brought to the hospital complaining r…/f Muscle stiffness and had generalized increased muscle tone. The drug most probably prescribed was

A. Chlorpropamide

B. Frusemide

C. Glibenclamide

D. Metaclopramide

E. Procainamide

.

Ans. D

.

25. a 25 year old office worker had experienced continousnaus.ia And repeated vomiting while travelling by air for the first tit ie About six months ago. He is again planning to travel by air ne :t Week and wants you to prescribe some drug which will preveit The same sickness. Which of the following drugs you would Recommend to this person to be taken before the start df Journey

A. Bromopheniramine

B. Chlorpheniramine

C. Cvclizine

D. Diazepam

E. Thioridazine

.

Ans. C

.

26. A patient taking dmetidine, already on warfarin therapy, develops increased bleeding time. Which of the following regarding action of cimetidine on warfarin?

A. It decreases clearance of warfarin from liver

B. It inhibits conversion of prothromobin to thrombin

C. It decreases metabolism of warfarin

D. It decreases absorption of warfarin

.

Ans. C

.

27. A 3.5 years old female was suffered from motion sickness while traveling from Karachi to Saudi Arabia six months back. Now again she is planning for journey to Dubai. Which Of the following drugs will- be best for her to prevent motion sickness again

A: Diazepam

B. Neostigmine

C. Cyclizine

D. Chloropromazine

E. Haloperidote

.

Ans. C

.

28. All are H2 blockers except one

A. Cernitidine

B. Ranitidine

C. Nizatidine

D. Famotidine

E. Terfenadine

.

Ans. E

.

29. Which of following drug is H. /.K pump m

A. Cimitidine

B. Omeprazote

C. Ran:Mine

D. Sucrevete

E. Amantldine

.

Ans. B

.

30. A person with cirrhosis , hematamesis Et bleeding. What is the drug of choice

A. IN: Octeroide

B. Inj: Omeprazole

C. Inj: Vasopression

C. Inj: transmit Acid

.

Ans. A

.

31. Drug given in gastroparesis in Diabetes mellitus

A. Rnetoctopromide

B. Loperamide

C. Thallidomide

.

Ans. A

.

32. Warfarin effect is increased when it is given along with

A. Rifampan

B. Cimitidine

C. INH

D. Phenytion

E. Ca.rmazipine

.

Ans. B

.

33. Frequent adverse effect of cimetidine is :

A. Inhibits hepatic metabolism/en/me

8. Agranutocytosis

C. Anti.estrogemo effect

D. Hypertension

E. Ste

.

Ans. A

.

34. Antacid causing slow gastric emptying:

A. Aluminium oh

B. Calcium co3

C. Magnesium oh

D. Na Wort)

.

Ans. A

.

35. Mechanism of action of ondansetrone:

A. Prokinetic

B. S Ht3 receptor

C. Dopamine antagonist at central chernorecptor zone

.

Ans. B

.

36. Warfarin, effect is increased by

a. Cimetidine

b. raniditide

c. omeprazole

d. quinolone

.

Ans. A

.

.

.

.

Endocrinology Pharma MCQs (For FCPS Part 1)

endocrinology pharma mcqs

Endocrinology Pharma MCQs (for FCPS Part 1)

1. Diabetic patient using Roziqurazone and metformin. Which investigation should be done for follow up

a. Lipid profile + Renal profile

b. Renal profile + Hepatic profile

c. Renal profile + Hepatic profile + Cardiac

.

Ans. C. THIAZOLIDINEDIONES (e.g., rosiglitazone) cause:

.

  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Cardiac failure

    .

    BIGUANIDES (e.g., metformin) cause:

    .

  • Lactic acidosis (that’s why they are contraindicated in renal failure)

    .

    2. Most common side effect of biquanide is

    a. Hypoglycemia

    b. Diarrhora and fitulence

    c. Eleveted ALT

    d. Thrombocytopenia

    e. Facial flushing following alchohal intake

.

Ans. B

.

  • The most common side effect of biguanides is GI upset.
  • The most serious side effect of biguanides is lactic acidosis.

    .

    3. 40YRS Male is 15kg overweight and his blood sugar is 20mmol.Which treatment in addition to diet and excirse should be given

    a. Biguanides

    b. Glybenclamide

    c. Acarbose

.

Ans. A. Biguanides (such as metformin) are first line therapy for type II diabetes mellitus.

.

4. A diabetic with hyper osmolar coma should be given

a. INH insulin

b. Regular

c. Lente

d. None of above

.

Ans. B. The two fatal complications of diabetes mellitus are:

.

  • Diabetes ketoacidosis
  • HONK (hyperosmolar non-ketotic diabetic coma)

    .

    In both conditions, regular (short acting) insulin is given.

    .

    5. In Old obese Diabetic who is newly diagnosed, choice of treatment will be

    a. Biguanides

    b. Biguanides plus sulphonylurea

    c. Insulin

    d. b and c

.

Ans. A. Biguanides (e.g. metformin) are the drug of first choice for type II diabetes mellitus.

.

6. Which drug is safe in hyperthyroid pregnant lady

a. Beta blockers

b. Diazepam

c. Propylthiouracil

d. Carbamazipine

.

Ans. C. Both PTU and methimazole can cross placenta but PTU is comparatively safer in pregnancy because it is extensively protein bound and does not cross placenta easily.

.

7. A 20 yr old girl with type 1 diabetes is brought to emergency in semi comatosed condition. An injection of insulin given to her will raise her

a. Blood sugar level

b. PH of blood

c. Urinary excretion of ketones

.

Ans. B.

.

  • Breakdown of fats results in formation of acetyl Co.A in the liver which is a substrate for formation of ketone bodies. As ketone bodies are acidic, they decrease Ph of the body.
  • Insulin inhibits breakdown of fats, thus decreasing formation of ketones and hence, increasing body Ph.

    .

    8. Hormone replacement therapy following adrenalectomy is necessary which of the following can cause death

    in absence of hormone replacement therapy:

    a. Aldosterone

    b. Corticosterone

    c. Cortisol.

    d. ACTH

.

Ans. A. ALDOSTERONE: Deficiency of aldosterone results in shock and death. Hence, aldosterone is necessary for life.

.

CORTISOL: One can live without cortisol under normal conditions, but death may result in the absence of cortisol in stressful conditions.

.

9. Mechanism of action of propylthiouracil

a. Inhibition Iodine pump

b. Blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormone

c. Blocks the synthesis of thyroglobulin

d. Inhibits hormone release

e. Decreases TSH

.

Ans. B. Propylthiouracil blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormone by blocking the enzyme “thyroid peroxidase”.

.

10. If a patient is on long term corticosteroid therapy, she wil most probably have increased risk of

a. Repeated infections

b. Decrease wound healing

c. Osteoporosis and fractures

d. Osteopetrosis

.

Ans. C

.

11. Patient has exophthalmos and his T3 and T4 are increased. What is the option for treatment of exophthalmos

a. Drugs blocking the action of T4

b. Drugs blocking T lymphocytes

c. Hypophysectomy

d. Administration of testosterone

e. Partial parathyroidectomy

.

Ans. B

.

12. Treatment of diabetes in pregnant lady is

a. Sulphonyl urea

b. Insulin

c. Biguanides

d. Suphonylurea and biguanides

.

Ans. B. DM 1 = Diet + Insulin ± Oral drugs

.

DM 2 = Diet + Oral ± Insulin

.

Gestational DM = Diet ± Insulin

.

13. Following are the second line drugs for treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis except

A. Antibiotics

B. Antimalarial drugs

C. Intrarticular gold

D. Penicillamine

E. Sulphasalazine

.

Ans. A

.

14. Propanolol acts as an anti thyroid drug because it

A. Blocks beta receptors

B. Increases the formation of

C. Is antiadrenergic

D. Reduces iodine trapping

E. Stabilizes t4

.

Ans. B

.

15. in pancreatic fistula somotostatin helps by

A. Decreasing the output of secretions

B. Inceasing the ph of secretions

C. Increasing the blood flow of the gland

D. Inhibiting the enzymes

E. Releiving pain

.

Ans. A

.

16. the second line drugs for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis Include all of the following except;

A. Antibiotics

B intimalarial drugs

C. Intramuscular gold

D. Penicillarnirie

E. Sulphasalazine

.

Ans. A

.

17. a 50-year old banker has been taking salbutamol, ibuprofen and Prednisolone for ten months and diazepam for seven days for His bronchial asthma and arthritis. He was hit by the closing Door of elevator in his office building on the upper arm Resulting in the fracture of his humerus. This fracture without Major trauma could have occuredbecause of

A. Arthritis

B. Diazepam

C. Ibuprofen

D. Prednisolone

E. Salbutamol

.

Ans. D

.

18. A 50 year old semi comatose diabetic patient has blood sugar of 650mg%. The insulin of choice for emergency treatment of this Patient is

A. Lente

B. Nph

C. Protamine zinc

D. Soluble regulara

E. Ultra lente

.

Ans. D

.

19. A middle aged patient, with Bronchial Asthma is receiving predinisione, Salbutamol & Ketotifien a other antiasthmatic treatment. He develops the fracture of his right humerus In striking with the lift door. Which of the following drugs is the culprit for this fracture With a trivial trauma?

A. Predinislone

B. Salbutamol

C. Pholcodine

D. Ketotifen

.

Ans. A

.

20. A pregnant lady of 15 weeks developed thyrotoxicosis which drug is treatment of Choice

A) beta Worker

B) Pm

C) Mg504

.

Ans. B

.

21. Mechanism of action of Propyl Thio Uracil (PTU), ant thyroid drug

A) Inhibits iodide pump

B) Blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormone

C) Blocks the synthesis of thyroglobulm

D) Inhibits hormone release

E) Controls hypothalamic temperature set point

.

Ans. B

.

22. Action of rosigtitazone

A. Increase uptake of glucose in myocytes and adipocytes

B. It has good effect in lipid metabolism

C. Increase glucose uptake by hepatocytes

D. It decrezzos the activity of PPAR-gamma enzyme

.

Ans. A

.

23. Regaring metfromin

A. Doesn’t cause hypoglycemia

B. Shouldn’t be given with sulphonyturea

C. Shouldn’t be given in obese person

D. Has no adverse effect in GEE

.

Ans. A

.

24. A lady having Sl-E which was not controlled by other drugs is prescribed with.steroids

For chronic use what should she do to prevent osteoporosis

A. Steroids should be given in pulsatile manner

B. Gonadotrophins should be given

C. Protein diet should be increased to Prevent the catabolism

D. Decrease Ca to prevent the stones

.

Ans. A

.

25. Diabetic patient using roziglitazone and metforrnin. Which investigation for Follow up

A. Lipid profile + Renal profile

B. Renal profile + Hepatic profile

C. Renal profile + Hepatic profile • Cardiac

.

Ans. C

.

26. A 40 yr old diabetic patient comes to you with blood sugar of 20 rrunoles/lit, there is no Complication. What is the best initial treatment along with exercise and diet.

A. Beguanides

B. Suiphonyl ureas

C. Insulin

D. A + B

E. Acarbose

.

Ans. A

.

27. A Patient with glucose 20mml/d1 type-II diabetic what is initial management beside Islet and exercise

A. Metformin

B. Insulin

C. Sulfonyturea metforrn in

D. Metformin • insulin

.

Ans. A

.

28. A40 year old diabetic patient comes to you with blood sugar of 20 mm1/fit, there is no Complication what Is the best initial treatment along with exercise and diet.

A. Beguanides

B. Sulphonyi ureas

C. Insulin

D. MB

E. Ararbose

.

Ans. A

.

29. Most common side effect of biguanides:

A. Hypoglycemia

B. Dinhea and flatulence

C. Elevated alt

D. Thrunixicytopenia

C. Facial flushing following alcohol inatake

.

Ans. B

.

30. Which antithyrold drug is given during Pregnancy?

a) Propylthiouracil

b) Thyroxine

c) Tnicdothyroxine

.

Ans. A

.

31. PG in inflammation are damned by:

a. aspirin

b. corticosteroids

c. phosphodiesterase inhibitors

.

Ans. B

.

32. PG released in inflammation are inhibited by:

a. aspirin

b. corticostcroids

C. serotonin

.

Ans. B

.

.

.

.